UPSC Prelims 2024 GS (Paper I · Set A)

Statement-I: The atmosphere is mostly transparent to short-wave incoming solar radiation — most of it passes through and heats the Earth's surface. The air is warmed mainly by long-wave terrestrial radiation re-radiated from the ground, not by incoming solar radiation. So Statement-I is incorrect.

Statement-II: $CO_2$ and other greenhouse gases are good absorbers of long-wave (terrestrial) radiation — this trapping is the greenhouse effect. Correct.

Statement-I wrong, Statement-II right → Option D.

Statement-I: Troposphere thickness is about $18$ km at the equator but only about $8$ km at the poles — much greater at the equator. Correct.

Statement-II: Intense equatorial heating drives strong convection currents that carry heat to great heights, pushing the tropopause higher. Correct.

The strong convection in II is exactly the reason the troposphere is thicker at the equator (I), so II explains I → Option A.

Volcanic eruptions release both solid ejecta and gases:

• Pyroclastic debris, including bombs and lapilli ✓
• Ash and dust ✓
• Nitrogen compounds: trace ammonia ($NH_3$) can occur in volcanic gases ✓
• Sulphur compounds such as $SO_2$ and $H_2S$ ✓

All four are products of volcanic eruptions → Option D.

Statement 1: In January (NH winter), oceans remain warmer than land. Isotherms bend poleward (north) over oceans and equatorward (south) over continents. Correct.

Statement 2: The Gulf Stream and North Atlantic Drift are warm currents, not cold, and they make the North Atlantic warmer (bending isotherms poleward). The statement calls them cold and says they cool the ocean — the premise is wrong. Incorrect.

Only 1 is correct → Option A.

The world's two largest cocoa producers are Côte d'Ivoire and Ghana, both in West Africa, together supplying the bulk of global cocoa.

• Algeria and Morocco — North Africa, not cocoa producers ✗
• Botswana and Namibia — arid southern Africa ✗
• Madagascar and Mozambique — minor producers ✗

→ Option C.

Moving West to East downstream of Prayagraj, the Himalayan tributaries join the Ganga in this order:

• Gomati (near Varanasi/Ghazipur)
• Ghaghara (at Chhapra/Doriganj)
• Gandak (near Patna/Hajipur)
• Kosi (further east, near Katihar)

So the sequence is Gomati – Ghaghara – Gandak – Kosi → Option B.

Statement-II: Rain water dissolves atmospheric $CO_2$ forming weak carbonic acid → carbonation, a chemical weathering process. Correct, and it explains I.

Statement-III: Rain water carries dissolved atmospheric oxygen → oxidation of minerals (e.g., iron turning to rust). Correct, and it also explains I.

Both II and III are correct and both explain why rainfall causes weathering → Option A.

North Sea coastlines:

• Finland borders the Baltic Sea, not the North Sea ✗
• Germany has a North Sea coastline ✓
• Norway has a North Sea coastline ✓
• Russia has no North Sea coastline ✗

Only two countries border the North Sea → Option B.

• Row 1: Dhuandhar Falls is on the Narmada at Jabalpur, but the region is Mahakoshal, not Malwa ✗
• Row 2: Hundru Falls — Chota Nagpur plateau, on the Subarnarekha river ✓
• Row 3: Gersoppa (Jog) Falls is on the Sharavati, not the Netravati ✗

Only one row is correctly matched → Option A.

• Row 1: Vosges lies in Europe (France) and is a block mountain — 'Central Asia / fold' is wrong ✗
• Row 2: The Alps are fold mountains, not block mountains ✗
• Row 3: Appalachians — ancient fold mountains ✓
• Row 4: Andes — young fold mountains ✓

Two rows are correctly matched → Option B.

Greenfield airports are built on entirely new sites; they are not upgrades of existing airports.

• Donyi Polo Airport, Itanagar (Hollongi) — new site, greenfield ✓
• Kushinagar International Airport — developed as a greenfield airport ✓
• Vijayawada International Airport (Gannavaram) — an upgrade of an existing airport, hence brownfield ✗

Only 1 and 2 → Option A.

Statement 1: Water vapour is a gas whose amount decreases with altitude — most of it lies in the lower troposphere. Correct.

Statement 2: Its percentage is maximum over warm, humid equatorial/tropical regions and oceans, not the poles. Cold polar air holds very little water vapour. Incorrect.

Only 1 is correct → Option A.

The description matches the Marine West Coast climate:

• Oceanic influence keeps both annual and daily temperature ranges low.
• Moist westerlies and temperate cyclones bring precipitation throughout the year.
• Annual precipitation commonly ranges from $50$–$250$ cm, varying with relief and exposure.

The Equatorial climate is uniformly hot with generally heavy convectional rainfall; the exact combination and precipitation range given here is the standard Marine West Coast description. China type and Humid subtropical climates have a larger seasonal temperature range and a summer rainfall maximum.

Therefore → Option D.

Statement 1: The magnitude of Coriolis acceleration is $2\Omega v\sin\phi$, so it is directly proportional to wind velocity $v$. It therefore increases with wind speed. Correct.

Statement 2: The $\sin\phi$ factor is maximum at the poles ($\phi=90^\circ$) and zero at the equator ($\phi=0^\circ$). Correct.

Both statements are correct → Option C.

On June 21 (summer solstice) the Northern Hemisphere tilts toward the sun, so NH latitudes get more than $12$ hours of daylight:

• Equator — exactly $12$ hours (not more) ✗
• Tropic of Cancer (NH) — more than $12$ hours ✓
• Tropic of Capricorn (SH) — less than $12$ hours ✗
• Arctic Circle — $24$ hours of daylight ✓

2 and 4 → Option D.

The world's largest tropical peatland is the Cuvette Centrale in the Congo Basin, storing about three years' worth of global fossil-fuel carbon emissions; its destruction would release huge $CO_2$ and harm the global climate.

• Amazon Basin — vast rainforest but not the largest tropical peatland ✗
• Kikori Basin (Papua New Guinea) and Rio de la Plata Basin — much smaller ✗

→ Option B.

All three statements about PFAS, often called ‘forever chemicals’, are correct:

• 1: PFAS are widespread in drinking water, food and food-packaging materials ✓
• 2: Strong carbon–fluorine bonds make many PFAS highly resistant to environmental degradation ✓
• 3: Persistent exposure can lead to bioaccumulation in animal and human bodies ✓

→ Option D.

Parasitoids lay eggs in/on a host, killing it as they develop. They occur in:

• Carabid beetles — some are parasitoids ✓
• Flies — many (e.g., tachinid flies) are parasitoids ✓
• Wasps — the largest group of parasitoids ✓
• Centipedes — free-living predators, not parasitoids ✗
• Termites — social plant/detritus feeders, not parasitoids ✗

Parasitoids are found in only three of these → Option B.

The pea family is Fabaceae (Leguminosae). All three are legumes with pods and root nodules:

• Groundnut ✓
• Horse-gram ✓
• Soybean ✓

All three belong to the pea family → Option C.

Statement-I: Historically, fruit bats, including the Indian Flying Fox, were listed as vermin in the former Schedule V of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972. The 2022 amendment, effective from 1 April 2023, abolished Schedule V; the Indian Flying Fox is now in Schedule II. The present-tense statement is therefore incorrect.

Statement-II: The Indian Flying Fox is frugivorous and feeds mainly on fruit, flowers and nectar, not on blood. Incorrect.

Both statements are incorrect, but none of the four options represents that combination. UPSC accordingly dropped this question from its final 2024 answer key. Therefore no option is marked correct.

Cicada, Froghopper and Pond skater are all insects of the order Hemiptera:

• Cicada — a sap-feeding insect ✓
• Froghopper — a sap-feeding insect whose nymph forms a foam covering ✓
• Pond skater — an insect that moves on the water surface ✓

None is a bird, fish or reptile → Option C.

Statement-I: Many chewing gums are a source of environmental pollution — discarded gum is non-biodegradable litter. Correct.

Statement-II: Many chewing gums use plastic (synthetic polymers) as the gum base. Correct.

The plastic gum base (II) is precisely why the discarded gum pollutes and does not degrade (I), so II explains I → Option A.

• Brazil–Indri: the Indri is a lemur found only in Madagascar, not Brazil ✗
• Indonesia–Elk: the Elk (wapiti) lives in North America and Eurasia, not Indonesia ✗
• Madagascar–Bonobo: the Bonobo is a great ape of the Democratic Republic of Congo, not Madagascar ✗

None of the pairs is correctly matched → Option D.

• Statement 1: The World Toilet Organization is a non-profit NGO (based in Singapore), not a UN agency ✗
• Statement 2: World Toilet Summit, World Toilet Day and World Toilet College are indeed its initiatives to tackle the sanitation crisis ✓
• Statement 3: Its focus is advocacy, awareness and training — not granting funds to countries ✗

Only 2 is correct → Option A.

• Statement 1: Lions have no fixed breeding season and can breed throughout the year ✓
• Statement 2: Cheetahs cannot roar; they can purr, chirp, growl and hiss ✓
• Statement 3: Male leopards do advertise territory through scent marking, as well as claw marks and calls ✗

Only 1 and 2 are correct → Option A.

"100 Million Farmers" is a World Economic Forum initiative that seeks to move food and water systems towards being net-zero (carbon), nature-positive while building farmer resilience — exactly Option A.

Why the others are wrong:

• Option B describes an organic animal-husbandry alliance — not this platform.
• Option C describes a blockchain-based fertilizer trading platform — a different concept.
• Option D describes a platform for forming FPOs/agribusiness consortiums for market access — not this one.

— Option A

Distributed Energy Resources (DERs) are small, decentralised sources connected near the point of use. All four qualify:

• Battery storage ✓ — stores and injects power locally
• Biomass generators ✓ — small distributed generation
• Fuel cells ✓ — on-site electricity generation
• Rooftop solar PV ✓ — the classic DER

Hence all four are DERs.

— Option D

Fig (Ficus) is identified by the classic obligate mutualism with pollinating fig wasps. The partners have coevolved, and the wasps are highly host-specific; this is the distinctive plant–insect relationship described.

Why the others are wrong:

• Mahua ✗ — it does not have the obligate fig-wasp pollination system.
• Sandalwood ✗ — it does not show this specialised fig-wasp relationship.
• Silk cotton (Semal) ✗ — it does not show this specialised fig-wasp relationship.

Option A

All three groups contain poisonous species:

• Butterflies ✓ — e.g., the Monarch stores toxins from milkweed, making it poisonous to predators.
• Fish ✓ — e.g., the pufferfish carries tetrodotoxin (poisonous if eaten); stonefish are venomous.
• Frogs ✓ — the poison dart frogs are famously toxic.

Hence all three.

— Option C

Only one is native to India:

• Cashew ✗ — native to Brazil; brought to India by the Portuguese.
• Papaya ✗ — native to Central America/southern Mexico.
• Red sanders ✓ — *Pterocarpus santalinus* is endemic to the Eastern Ghats of India (Andhra Pradesh).

Hence only one.

— Option A

Statement 1: RTGs are miniature fission reactors — Incorrect ✗. They convert heat from natural radioactive decay into electricity through thermocouples; no fission chain reaction occurs.

Statement 2: RTGs power onboard spacecraft systems — Correct ✓. Spacecraft and planetary rovers use them when long-lived, sunlight-independent power is needed.

Statement 3: RTGs can use plutonium-238, described here as a weapons-development by-product — Correct ✓. Plutonium-238 can be made by irradiating neptunium-237, which arose in reactor streams associated with production of weapons-grade plutonium-239. Plutonium-238 itself is not weapons-grade plutonium.

Hence, statements 2 and 3 only are correct.

Option B

In the intended comparison, ‘dwarf stars’ means low-mass, hydrogen-burning dwarfs.

Statement-I: Giant stars live much longer than dwarf stars — Incorrect ✗. Giants have very high luminosity and consume available nuclear fuel rapidly, whereas low-mass dwarfs burn fuel slowly and can remain active much longer.

Statement-II: Giant stars have a greater rate of nuclear reactions — Correct ✓. Their hotter cores support a much higher fusion rate.

Therefore, Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.

Option D

Nitric oxide ($NO$) is produced in the body, notably by vascular endothelial cells. It relaxes vascular smooth muscle, dilates blood vessels and increases blood flow.

Why the others are wrong:

• Nitrous oxide ($N_2O$) ✗ — it is an anaesthetic, not the endogenous signalling molecule described.
• Nitrogen dioxide ($NO_2$) ✗ — it is a toxic pollutant.
• Nitrogen pentoxide ($N_2O_5$) ✗ — it is a reactive oxide, not this physiological signal.

Option A

Radar can be used in two activities:

• 1. Identification of narcotics on passengers ✗ — Airport millimetre-wave imaging can locate a concealed object or anomaly, but it does not identify the material as a narcotic. Chemical, ion-mobility or spectroscopic tests are needed for substance identification.
• 2. Monitoring of precipitation ✓ — weather (Doppler) radar detects precipitation and estimates its intensity.
• 3. Tracking animal migration ✓ — biological radar can track the movement of birds, bats and insects.

Thus only activities 2 and 3 qualify.

Option B

Item 1's ‘Rafael’ is evidently a misspelling of Rafale; the Hindi item also reads राफेल. Interpreting it as Rafale, none of the three is a fifth-generation fighter:

• Rafale ✗ — a 4.5-generation multirole fighter.
• MiG-29 ✗ — a fourth-generation fighter.
• Tejas Mk-1 ✗ — a fourth-generation light combat aircraft.

Fifth-generation classification requires features such as low-observable design and integrated sensor fusion; these aircraft are not classified as fifth-generation.

Option D

Scope: The unqualified phrase ‘are used’ is broader than the intended conventional-application reading; hydrogels have also been investigated as lubricating materials. Under the question's established-use classification:

• 1. Controlled drug delivery ✓ — a water-swollen, cross-linked hydrogel network can hold a drug and control its release through swelling, diffusion or degradation.
• 2. Mobile air-conditioning systems ✗ — conventional mobile air-conditioning uses a vapour-compression refrigerant circuit; hydrogel cooling prototypes do not establish hydrogel as a standard component of such systems.
• 3. Preparation of industrial lubricants ✗ — conventional industrial lubricants are formulated as oils or greases. Experimental lubricating hydrogels or hydrogel coatings do not establish a standard use in preparing industrial lubricants.

Under this intended scope, 1 only is the best answer.

Option A

A hydrogen Fuel Cell Electric Vehicle combines hydrogen with oxygen to make electricity; the only tailpipe emission is water vapour ($2H_2 + O_2 \to 2H_2O$).

Why the others are wrong:

• Hydrogen peroxide and hydronium are not exhaust products of a fuel cell.
• Oxygen is an input (from air), not the emission.

— Option D

Pumped-storage hydropower stores energy by pumping water uphill to a reservoir during surplus power, then releasing it through turbines when demand is high. It is discussed as a form of long-duration energy storage, crucial for balancing intermittent renewables.

Why the others are wrong:

• Terraced-field irrigation, lift irrigation of cereals, and rainwater harvesting are irrigation/water-supply concepts, not energy storage.

— Option C

Membrane Bioreactors (MBR) combine biological treatment with membrane filtration and are used mainly in wastewater treatment technologies to produce high-quality treated water.

Why the others are wrong:

• Assisted reproduction, drug-delivery nanotech and vaccine production are unrelated fields; MBR is a water-treatment process.

— Option D

Collateralised Borrowing and Lending Obligation (CBLO) was a collateral-backed short-term borrowing and lending instrument developed by CCIL. Its short tenor made it a money-market instrument. The CBLO segment was discontinued in 2018 and replaced by triparty repo, but that does not change its market classification.

Why the others are wrong:

• Bond, forex and stock markets are not the market category to which CBLO belonged.

Option C

Total Fertility Rate (TFR) is defined as the average number of live births a woman would have by the end of her child-bearing age, if she experiences the current age-specific fertility rates.

Why the others are wrong:

• Option A defines the crude birth rate (births per 1000 population).
• Option B is an actual completed-family count, not the rate-based TFR.
• Option C (birth rate − death rate) is the rate of natural increase.

— Option D

Statement 1: NBFCs can access RBI’s Liquidity Adjustment Facility — Correct ✓ in the sense tested. Standalone Primary Dealers are NBFCs authorised by RBI and are eligible for LAF operations. This does not mean that every ordinary NBFC has LAF access.

Statement 2: Foreign institutional or portfolio investors can hold G-Secs — Correct ✓, subject to the applicable investment routes and limits.

Statement 3: Stock exchanges can provide separate debt-trading platforms — Correct ✓. NSE and BSE operate dedicated debt segments.

Hence, statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct.

Option C

In India, all three can trade in Corporate Bonds and Government Securities:

• Insurance Companies ✓ — major institutional investors in bonds and G-Secs.
• Pension Funds ✓ — invest heavily in debt securities.
• Retail Investors ✓ — can buy G-Secs via the RBI Retail Direct scheme and corporate bonds through exchanges.

Hence 1, 2 and 3.

— Option D

A financial instrument is a monetary contract creating a financial asset for one party and a liability/equity for another.

• ETF ✓ — a tradable pooled-investment security.
• Motor vehicle ✗ — a physical/real asset, not a financial contract.
• Currency swap ✓ — a derivative financial contract.

Hence 1 and 3 only.

— Option D

Check each pair:

• 1. Storage of agricultural produce → Secondary ✗ — storage is a service/tertiary activity.
• 2. Dairy farm → Primary ✓ — animal husbandry is a primary activity.
• 3. Mineral exploration → Tertiary ✗ — mining/exploration of minerals is a primary activity.
• 4. Weaving cloth → Secondary ✓ — turning yarn into cloth is manufacturing (secondary).

Only pairs 2 and 4 match ⇒ only two.

— Option B

All four can serve as feedstock for Sustainable Aviation Fuel through different conversion pathways.

• Agricultural residues ✓ — lignocellulosic biomass can be gasified for a Fischer–Tropsch route or converted to cellulosic alcohol for alcohol-to-jet processing.
• Corn grain ✓ — corn ethanol can be upgraded through an alcohol-to-jet pathway.
• Wastewater-treatment sludge ✓ — wet waste can be converted through routes such as hydrothermal liquefaction and subsequent upgrading.
• Wood-mill waste ✓ — woody residues can be gasified and converted into synthetic aviation fuel.

Hence, 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct.

Option C

Fixed capital = durable items used repeatedly over years; working capital = raw materials and money used up in production.

• 1. Farmer's plough → Working capital ✗ — a plough is a durable tool ⇒ fixed capital.
• 2. Computer → Fixed capital ✓ — a durable asset.
• 3. Yarn used by weaver → Fixed capital ✗ — yarn is raw material used up ⇒ working capital.
• 4. Petrol → Working capital ✓ — consumed in use.

Only pairs 2 and 4 match ⇒ only two.

— Option B

An interoperable network of 3D virtual worlds accessed simultaneously by millions of users who can hold property rights over virtual items is the definition of the Metaverse.

Why the others are wrong:

• Big data analytics = analysing large datasets.
• Cryptography = securing information.
• Virtual matrix = not a standard term for this concept.

— Option C

Statement 1: There is no minimum capital requirement for a foreign bank’s WOS — Incorrect ✗. RBI prescribed an initial minimum paid-up voting equity capital of ₹500 crore for a new WOS.

Statement 2: At least 50% of the board members must be Indian nationals — Incorrect ✗. The relevant threshold covers Indian nationals, NRIs and PIOs together; separately, at least one-third of the directors must be Indian nationals resident in India. It therefore does not require 50% of the board to be Indian nationals alone.

Hence, neither statement 1 nor statement 2 is correct.

Option D

Statement 1: Direct company-benefit or employee-benefit expenditure is not treated as CSR — Correct ✓ in the intended sense. The CSR definition excludes normal-course business activities, sponsorship aimed at marketing benefits and activities benefiting company employees; CSR cannot be used as ordinary business or employee welfare spending.

Statement 2: CSR rules specify no minimum spending — Incorrect ✗. Section 135 requires an eligible company to spend at least 2% of the average net profits of the three immediately preceding financial years, subject to the statutory framework.

Hence, 1 only is correct.

Option A

Assertion–Reason analysis.

Statement I: In the intended exam sense, default means failure to make principal or interest payment when due, so holders do not receive the promised payment on schedule. Their underlying legal claim does not disappear; the wording "exercise their claims" is imprecise if read literally. Correct in the intended sense.

Statement II: US Treasury debt is not secured by specified hard assets such as gold. It rests on the full faith and credit of the US Government. Correct.

Link: Because the bonds are unsecured sovereign obligations, a default leaves holders without earmarked hard collateral for immediate recovery. In that intended asset-backing sense, Statement II explains Statement I.

— Option A

Official status: Dropped question. The English and Hindi texts conflict, so no single option is valid for both versions.

Statement-I: In English, syndicated lending spreads default risk across several lenders, making the statement correct. The Hindi text instead says the risk increases ("जोखिम बढ़ाता है"), which makes the Hindi statement incorrect.

Statement-II: A syndicated facility may be a fixed term loan or a revolving credit line. The claim that it cannot be a credit line is incorrect.

Accordingly, the English text points to Option C, while the literal Hindi text makes both statements incorrect and provides no matching option. The question therefore has no accepted answer.

Evaluate each statement about the Digital Rupee (CBDC):

• 1 ✓ It is a sovereign currency issued by the RBI in line with its monetary policy.
• 2 ✓ It is a liability on the RBI's balance sheet, like currency notes.
• 3 ✗ It is not insured against inflation — like any fiat currency its real value falls with inflation; design gives no inflation protection.
• 4 ✓ It is freely convertible against commercial bank money and cash (1:1).

Correct: 1, 2 and 4.

— Option D

Check each epithet:

• 1. Nayaputta ✗ — 'Nataputta / Nayaputta' refers to Mahavira (the 24th Tirthankara), not the Buddha.
• 2. Shakyamuni ✓ — 'Sage of the Shakya clan', a well-known epithet of Gautama Buddha.
• 3. Tathagata ✓ — 'One who has thus gone/come', the Buddha's frequent self-designation.

Only 2 and 3 are Buddha's epithets.

— Option B

Match each row:

• 1. Chandraketugarh ✗ — it is in West Bengal, not Odisha (an early historic trading site).
• 2. Inamgaon ✓ — a Chalcolithic site in Maharashtra (Jorwe culture).
• 3. Mangadu ✓ — a Megalithic site in Kerala.
• 4. Salihundam ✗ — in Andhra Pradesh, but it is a Buddhist stupa site, not rock-cut cave shrines.

Correctly matched: 2 and 3.

— Option B

The Vijayanagara ruler Krishnadevaraya granted the Portuguese permission to build a fort at Bhatkal (on the Kanara coast), reflecting his cordial trade relations with the Portuguese (especially for horse imports).

• Narasimha Saluva, Muhammad Shah III (Bahmani), Yusuf Adil Shah (Bijapur) — not associated with this permission.

— Option A

Official status: Dropped question. The stem and Statement 1 are not cleanly aligned, so the item has no accepted answer.

Statement 1: The opening phrase limits the question to revenue collection by Cornwallis, but the Ryotwari system is associated with Alexander Read and Thomas Munro. Moreover, historical accounts distinguish remission or reduction in bad seasons from complete exemption. Thus the statement is inadequately framed.

Statement 2: Under the Permanent Settlement's Sunset Law, failure to pay the fixed revenue by the stipulated time made the zamindari estate liable to sale. This statement is correct.

Although the intended Cornwallis reading may suggest Option B, the defective framing prevents a definitive scored answer.

Statement 1 ✗ — The Upanishads do contain parables and illustrative dialogues. The Svetaketu–Uddalaka dialogue and the salt-in-water illustration are examples. Therefore, the absolute claim that they contain no parables is false.

Statement 2 ✓ — In the standard historical classification intended here, the principal or early Upanishads belong to the late Vedic layer and predate the main Puranic corpus. Later texts bearing the name "Upanishad" also exist, so the date range of the early Upanishads should not be applied to every such text.

Only 2 is correct in the intended classification.

— Option B

Statement 1 ✓ — India is a member of the International Grains Council (IGC), an intergovernmental body on trade in grains.

Statement 2 ✗ — IGC membership is not a precondition for exporting or importing rice and wheat; many non-member countries trade freely in grains. Trade is governed by WTO/bilateral rules, not IGC membership.

Only 1 is correct.

— Option A

UNESCO Intangible Cultural Heritage inscriptions (India):

• Chhau dance — 2010
• Kumbh Mela — 2017
• Durga Puja of Kolkata — 2021
• Garba of Gujarat — 2023 (the latest among these)

The most recent inclusion is Garba dance.

— Option C

Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha was the Provisional (temporary) President of the Constituent Assembly at its first sitting on 9 December 1946, as the eldest member. Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected permanent President on 11 December 1946.

• Rajagopalachari, Ambedkar, T.T. Krishnamachari did not hold this provisional post.

— Option D

Statement 1 ✓ — The Act of 1935 provided for an All India Federation uniting the British Indian Provinces and Princely States (though it never materialised as states did not accede).

Statement 2 ✗ — Defence and Foreign Affairs were reserved subjects kept under the direct control of the Governor-General, not the federal legislature.

Only 1 is correct.

— Option A

Bhasa, the ancient Sanskrit playwright, is credited with the *Trivandrum plays*; among the options, *Madhyama-vyayoga* (a one-act vyayoga based on the Mahabharata) is his work.

• *Kavyalankara* — by Bhamaha (poetics).
• *Natyashastra* — by Bharata Muni.
• *Mahabhashya* — by Patanjali (grammar).

— Option C

Sanghabhuti, an Indian Buddhist monk who travelled to China in the late fourth century CE, is credited with a commentary on the *Sarvastivada Vinaya*, the monastic disciplinary code of the Sarvastivada school.

• *Prajnaparamita Sutra*, *Visuddhimagga* and *Lalitavistara* are not the work asked for here.

— Option C

Year of UNESCO World Heritage inscription:

• 1. Shantiniketan — 2023 ✓
• 2. Rani-ki-Vav — 2014 ✗
• 3. Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas — 2023 ✓
• 4. Mahabodhi Temple Complex, Bodhgaya — 2002 ✗

Inscribed in 2023: only two (1 and 3).

— Option B

Article 368 expressly states that Parliament may amend the Constitution by way of addition, variation or repeal of any provision, in accordance with the prescribed procedure. All three modes are named in the text of Article 368(1).

— Option D

Countries frequently cited for low birth rates / ageing / declining population:

• 1. Italy ✓ — very low fertility, ageing Europe.
• 2. Japan ✓ — classic case of ageing and shrinking population.
• 4. South Korea ✓ — world's lowest fertility rate.
• 3. Nigeria ✗ — one of the fastest-growing populations.
• 5. South Africa ✗ — still a growing, relatively young population.

Correct: 1, 2 and 4.

— Option A

Money Bill (Articles 109, 110):

• 1 ✓ Article 109 lays down the special procedure for Money Bills.
• 2 ✓ A Money Bill cannot be introduced in the Rajya Sabha (Council of States); only in the Lok Sabha.
• 3 ✓ The Rajya Sabha may approve or recommend changes within 14 days but cannot reject it.
• 4 ✗ Amendments/recommendations of the Rajya Sabha need NOT be accepted by the Lok Sabha — the Lok Sabha may accept or reject them.

Correct: 1, 2 and 3.

— Option C

Equivalent ranks (Army / Air Force / Navy):

• 1 ✗ Brigadier = Air Commodore = Commodore (Navy), not Commander.
• 2 ✗ Major General = Air Vice Marshal = Rear Admiral, not Vice Admiral.
• 3 ✓ Major = Squadron Leader = Lieutenant Commander — correctly matched.
• 4 ✗ Lieutenant Colonel = Wing Commander = Commander. Group Captain instead corresponds to an Army Colonel and a Navy Captain, so the row is mismatched.

Only 3 is correct.

— Option D

Statutory-list reading: Section 3(1), as amended in 2002, specifies the Council's core membership. Section 3(2) separately permits the President to nominate a Union Minister as a member.

• 1 ✓ Governors of the constituent States are listed in Section 3(1).
• 2 ✓ Chief Ministers of the constituent States are listed in Section 3(1).
• 3 ✓ Three members nominated by the President are listed in Section 3(1).
• 4 ✗ The Home Minister as such is not an automatic membership category under Section 3(1). The Home Minister was later nominated as ex-officio Chairman under the separate enabling provision.

Therefore, under the intended statutory-list reading, only 1, 2 and 3 are correct.

— Option A

India had constituted four Delimitation Commissions by December 2023:

• 1952, under the Delimitation Commission Act, 1952
• 1963, under the Delimitation Commission Act, 1962
• 1973, under the Delimitation Act, 1972
• 2002, under the Delimitation Act, 2002

Thus the count is four.

— Option D

The Constitution (71st Amendment) Act, 1992 added three languages to the Eighth Schedule:

• 1. Konkani ✓
• 2. Manipuri ✓
• 3. Nepali ✓
• 4. Maithili ✗ — added later by the 92nd Amendment, 2003.

Correct: 1, 2 and 3.

— Option A

Party–Leader pairs:

• 1. Bharatiya Jana Sangh — Dr. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee ✓ (founder, 1951).
• 2. Socialist Party — C. Rajagopalachari ✗ — Rajaji founded the Swatantra Party; the Socialists were led by JP, Lohia, Narendra Dev.
• 3. Congress for Democracy — Jagjivan Ram ✓ (formed 1977).
• 4. Swatantra Party — Acharya Narendra Dev ✗ — Narendra Dev was a Socialist leader; Swatantra was founded by C. Rajagopalachari.

Correctly matched: only two (1 and 3).

— Option B

Location of provisions in the Constitution:

• 1 ✓ Municipalities — Part IX-A.
• 2 ✓ Emergency provisions — Part XVIII.
• 3 ✓ Amendment of the Constitution — Part XX (Article 368).

All three are correctly stated.

— Option D

Correct statement as per the Constitution:

• (a) ✗ Inter-State trade and commerce is a Union List subject (and Arts. 301–304), not State List.
• (b) ✗ Inter-State migration is in the Union List, not a State subject.
• (c) ✓ Inter-State quarantine is a Union subject — Union List Entry 81.
• (d) ✗ Corporation tax is a Union List subject, not State.

— Option C

The Right to Privacy was declared a fundamental right by a 9-judge bench in K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017), as an intrinsic part of the Right to Life and Personal Liberty under Article 21, and also flowing from the freedoms in Part III.

• Article 15 deals with prohibition of discrimination — not privacy. ✗
• Article 16 deals with equality of opportunity in public employment. ✗
• Article 19 protects freedoms of speech, movement, etc.; privacy partly draws from it but the Court anchored it in life and liberty. ✗
• Article 21 — 'life and personal liberty' is the primary home of the Right to Privacy. ✓

Option D

The CDS heads the Department of Military Affairs and is the Permanent Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee.

• Statement 1: Permanent Chairman of Chiefs of Staff Committee — ✓
• Statement 2: The CDS does not exercise military command over the three Service Chiefs; he has no operational command over any of the Services. ✗
• Statement 3: He is the Principal Military Advisor to the Defence Minister on all tri-service matters. ✓

Hence 1 and 3 only.

Option D

Operation Sadbhavana is the Indian Army's initiative for welfare and upliftment of local populations in remote/border areas (notably J&K and Ladakh) — building schools, healthcare, infrastructure and meeting basic needs.

• Operation Sankalp — naval security in the Gulf of Oman/Strait of Hormuz. ✗
• Operation Maitri — India's 2015 Nepal earthquake relief. ✗
• Operation Sadbhavana — welfare/goodwill for remote local communities. ✓
• Operation Madad — disaster/flood relief (e.g., Kerala floods). ✗

Option C

The Canada–United States border is the longest international border in the world at about 8,891 km (including the Alaska stretch).

• Canada–USA — about 8,891 km, the world's longest. ✓
• Chile–Argentina — about 5,300 km; it is South America's longest, but is shorter. ✗
• China–India — about 3,488 km. ✗
• Kazakhstan–Russia — about 7,600 km; it is the longest continuous land border, but is shorter overall. ✗

Option A

On the Lok Sabha Ethics Committee:

• Statement 1: It was first constituted as an ad-hoc committee in 2000 and later made a permanent/standing committee. ✓
• Statement 2: Not only an MP — *any person* can lodge a complaint about a member's unethical conduct, but a non-member must route it through a Lok Sabha member with evidence and an affidavit. So the claim 'only a Member can make a complaint' is wrong. ✗
• Statement 3: The Committee does not take up matters that are sub-judice. ✓

Hence 1 and 3 only.

Option C

On the Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam (Constitution (106th Amendment) Act, 2023):

• Statement 1: The reservation does not automatically take effect from the 18th Lok Sabha. Under Article 334A, it takes effect only after delimitation based on the first census conducted after the Act's commencement. ✗
• Statement 2: Article 334A says the reservation provisions cease 15 years from the commencement of the Amendment Act, subject to Parliament continuing the reserved seats by law. Thus the stated 15-year period is correct; it is not counted from the later operational date. ✓
• Statement 3: Of the Lok Sabha seats reserved for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes, nearly one-third are reserved for women belonging to those communities. ✓

Hence 2 and 3 only.

Option C

On Exercise Mitra Shakti-2023:

• Statement 1: It is a joint exercise between India and Sri Lanka, not Bangladesh. ✗
• Statement 2: The 2023 edition commenced in Aundh (Pune), Maharashtra. ✓
• Statement 3: A goal was joint response in counter-terrorism operations. ✓
• Statement 4: The Indian Air Force participated in this edition. ✓

Hence 2, 3 and 4.

Option D

A Writ of Prohibition is issued by the Supreme Court or a High Court to a lower court or tribunal, directing it to stop proceedings that are outside its jurisdiction. It is preventive and is issued before the impugned proceedings culminate in a decision.

• Option A: A general direction to a public officer to perform or refrain from a public duty falls within mandamus, not prohibition. ✗
• Option B: Prohibition is not issued to a legislature to enact a law. ✗
• Option C: Stopping a lower court from continuing proceedings is precisely the function of prohibition. ✓
• Option D: Prohibition is not a general order restraining government policy. ✗

Option C

On Scheduled Tribes:

• Statement 1: It is not the Governor — under Article 342, the President specifies the tribes/communities deemed to be Scheduled Tribes (after consultation with the Governor), and Parliament may include or exclude by law. The Governor does not declare STs. ✗
• Statement 2: A community listed as ST in one State need not be an ST in another State — the notification is State-specific. ✓

Hence 2 only.

Option B

Under the official UPSC key, both statements are treated as correct:

• Statement 1: The President causes the Annual Financial Statement to be laid before both Houses under Article 112. In parliamentary practice, the Union Finance Minister presents it as a member of the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister; the statement's phrase 'on behalf of the Prime Minister' is accepted in that institutional sense. ✓
• Statement 2: Article 113 expressly provides that no demand for a grant shall be made except on the recommendation of the President. ✓

Hence both 1 and 2 are correct.

Option C

Both 'The India Way: Strategies for an Uncertain World' (2020) and 'Why Bharat Matters' (2024) are authored by Dr. S. Jaishankar, the External Affairs Minister and career diplomat.

• Bhupender Yadav — co-authored 'The Rise of the BJP'. ✗
• Nalin Mehta — author of 'The New BJP'. ✗
• Shashi Tharoor — author of many books (e.g., 'The Battle of Belonging') but not these. ✗
• Subrahmanyam Jaishankar — author of both titles. ✓

Option D

Checking each pair:

• 1. Argentina — severe economic crisis: Correct. By the end of 2023, Argentina's annual inflation had exceeded 200%, alongside a currency and debt crisis; it was widely described as one of the country's worst crises in decades. ✓
• 2. Sudan — war between the regular army and paramilitary forces: Correct. Fighting began in April 2023 between the Sudanese Armed Forces and the paramilitary Rapid Support Forces. ✓
• 3. Türkiye — rescinded its NATO membership: Incorrect. Türkiye remained a NATO member; it did not withdraw from the alliance. ✗

Thus only two pairs are correctly matched.

Option B

The question uses the standard description of the Suez–SUMED corridor as a strategic route for Persian Gulf oil and natural-gas shipments to Europe. A technical qualification is important: the SUMED pipes themselves transport crude oil, while LNG ships use the Suez Canal.

• Statement I: Under the intended corridor-level description, SUMED forms part of the strategic Red Sea–Mediterranean route serving Gulf energy shipments to Europe. ✓
• Statement II: The pipeline runs from Ain Sukhna on the Gulf of Suez/Red Sea side to Sidi Kerir on the Mediterranean side. It therefore links the Red Sea and Mediterranean. ✓

That link supplies the geographical reason the corridor is strategic for shipments toward Europe, so Statement II explains Statement I.

Option A

On the Red Sea:

• Statement 1: The Red Sea lies in an arid belt and receives very little precipitation in any form. ✓
• Statement 2: In the standard geographical description, no river flows into the Red Sea. Rare runoff through wadis is not treated as river inflow. ✓

Both statements are correct. Low precipitation and the absence of river inflow, together with high evaporation and restricted water exchange, contribute to the Red Sea's high salinity.

Option C

According to the US EPA, the largest source of sulphur dioxide (SO₂) emissions is the burning of fossil fuels by power plants and other industrial facilities.

• Locomotives — a source, but small. ✗
• Ships — significant for marine areas but not the largest overall. ✗
• Metal extraction/smelting — a source, but smaller than power generation. ✗
• Power plants using fossil fuels — the largest single source of SO₂. ✓

Option D

On the Sahel region:

• Statement I: The Sahel has faced growing instability and a worsening security situation, including repeated insurgent violence and political upheaval. ✓
• Statement II: Mali, Burkina Faso, Niger and Chad have experienced recent military coups or military takeovers. ✓

These takeovers weakened civilian institutions and disrupted regional security cooperation, thereby intensifying political instability and insecurity. Hence Statement II explains Statement I.

Option A

On apple imports and genetically modified food:

• Statement I: Incorrect. India imported apples from the United States even while the additional retaliatory duty applied; in 2022–23 alone, such imports were about 4,486 tonnes. Removal of the additional duty in 2023 changed their tariff treatment, but did not begin imports from zero. ✗
• Statement II: Correct. Genetically modified food cannot lawfully be imported without the prior approval required under the applicable biosafety and food-safety framework. ✓

Thus Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.

Option D

Under Article 96, while a resolution for the removal of the Speaker is under consideration:

• Statement 1: He/She shall not preside (the Deputy Speaker or another member presides). ✓
• Statement 2: He/She has the right to speak in and take part in the proceedings — so 'shall not have the right to speak' is wrong. ✗
• Statement 3: He/She is entitled to vote in the first instance (only not the casting vote) — so 'not entitled to vote in the first instance' is wrong. ✗

Hence 1 only.

Option A

On the lapsing of bills with Lok Sabha dissolution:

• Statement 1: A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on dissolution. ✓
• Statement 2: A bill passed by the Lok Sabha but pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses on Lok Sabha dissolution. ✓
• Statement 3: A bill for which the President has notified intention to summon a joint sitting does NOT lapse on dissolution — so the statement (that it lapses) is wrong. ✗

Hence 1 and 2.

Option B

On Parliament:

• Statement 1: Prorogation by the President does require the advice of the Council of Ministers (the President acts on aid and advice) — so 'does not require' is wrong. ✗
• Statement 2: Prorogation is generally done after the House is adjourned sine die, but there is no bar to prorogating a House in session. ✓
• Statement 3: Dissolution of the Lok Sabha is done by the President, who, save in exceptional circumstances, acts on the advice of the Council of Ministers. ✓

Hence 2 and 3.

Option C

On the Net-Zero Industry Act:

• Statement I: The European Parliament approved the Net-Zero Industry Act. It aims to expand EU manufacturing capacity for clean technologies, with a 2030 benchmark of at least 40% of annual deployment needs. ✓
• Statement II: The claim is incorrect on both counts. The EU's climate-neutrality target is 2050, not 2040, and the Act sets a 40% benchmark rather than requiring all clean technology to be produced domestically. ✗

Thus Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.

Option C

On Venezuela:

• Statement I: The claim that Venezuela has rapidly recovered and stopped its people from fleeing is incorrect — Venezuela remains in deep crisis and mass emigration (millions of migrants/refugees) continues. ✗
• Statement II: Venezuela has the world's largest proven oil reserves — correct. ✓

Since Statement I is false and Statement II is true:

Option D

On the Digital India Land Records Modernisation Programme (DILRMP):

• Statement 1: DILRMP is a Central Sector Scheme with 100% central funding (since 2016). ✓
• Statement 2: Cadastral maps are digitised under the programme. ✓
• Statement 3: An initiative has been taken to transliterate Records of Rights from the local language into languages recognized by the Constitution. ✓

All three are correct.

Option D

On the Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan (PMSMA):

• Statement 1: PMSMA guarantees fixed-day antenatal care in the 2nd/3rd trimester on the 9th of every month — but it does not provide 'six months post-delivery health care', so the statement is wrong on the post-delivery part. ✗
• Statement 2: Under the scheme, private-sector specialists can volunteer to provide services at nearby government health facilities. ✓

Hence 2 only.

Option B

On the PM Shram Yogi Maan-dhan (PM-SYM) Yojana:

• Statement 1: The entry age is 18 to 40 years, not 21 to 40 — so it is wrong. ✗
• Statement 2: The beneficiary makes an age-specific contribution (higher entry age means higher monthly contribution). ✓
• Statement 3: Each subscriber gets a minimum assured pension of ₹3,000 per month after age 60. ✓
• Statement 4: Family pension applies only to the spouse (50% of pension), not to unmarried daughters — so it is wrong. ✗

Hence 2 and 3 only.

Option B