UPSC Prelims 2025 GS (Paper I · Set A)

SEBI (AIF) Regulations, 2012 define Alternative Investment Funds as privately pooled investment vehicles that are *not* covered under traditional securities regulations.

• I. Bonds ✗ — a conventional debt security, traded on regular markets.

• II. Hedge Funds ✓ — classified as Category III AIF.

• III. Stocks ✗ — conventional equity security, traded on stock exchanges.

• IV. Venture Capital ✓ — classified as Category I AIF.

Only Hedge Funds and Venture Capital qualify as AIFs ⇒ two.

— Option B

RBI's income comes mainly from interest on government securities, returns on forex reserves, and OMO trading gains.

• I. G-Sec buy/sell ✓ — OMOs and interest earnings are major income heads.

• II. Forex buy/sell ✓ — returns and gains on foreign currency assets are a key source.

• III. Pension fund management ✗ — RBI does not manage pension funds; that is done by PFRDA-regulated entities.

• IV. Lending to private companies ✗ — RBI lends to banks (repo, MSF), not directly to private companies.

• V. Printing/distributing notes ✗ — this is an expenditure (paid to BRBNMPL/SPMCIL), not income.

— Option A

• I. ED ✗ — ED enforces the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018, but it works under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance, not the Internal Security Division of the Ministry of Home Affairs.

• II. DRI ✓ — DRI enforces the Customs Act, 1962 and functions under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance through CBIC.

• III. DG Systems & Data Management ✗ — it is under CBIC/Department of Revenue, but the stated function of carrying out big-data analytics to assist tax officers and nab evaders is the function of DG Analytics and Risk Management (DGARM). DG Systems & Data Management mainly handles customs/indirect-tax IT systems, automation and data support.

Only one row is correctly matched.

— Option A

• I ✗ — BRSR is mandated by SEBI, not RBI, and only for the top 1000 listed companies by market cap — not all listed companies.

• II ✓ — BRSR captures ESG (Environment, Social, Governance) parameters — emissions, gender ratios, community impact, etc. — which are predominantly non-financial disclosures.

— Option B

• Statement I ✗ — Under Section 2(1A) of the Income-tax Act, 'agricultural income' is narrowly defined as income from land used for agriculture. Allied activities like poultry farming, dairy and wool rearing are NOT agricultural income and are fully taxable as business income.

• Statement II ✓ — Under Section 2(14), rural agricultural land (outside specified municipal limits and population thresholds) is excluded from the definition of 'capital asset', hence its sale does not attract capital gains tax.

— Option D

• I ✓ — India joined the US-led Minerals Security Partnership (MSP) in June 2023 as the 14th member.

• II ✗ — India identified 30 critical minerals (2023 report), but is heavily import-dependent (e.g., lithium, cobalt, nickel) for many of them — not 'resource-rich' across all 30.

• III ✓ — The MMDR Amendment Act, 2023 empowered the Central Government to exclusively auction mining leases/composite licences for specified critical minerals (e.g., lithium, beryllium, niobium).

— Option C

• Statement I ✓ — bondholders bear lower risk than stockholders (fixed coupon, contractual claim).

• Statement II ✓ — bondholders are creditors (lenders) of the company; stockholders are part-owners (equity holders). This explains lower risk: creditors get fixed promised payments regardless of profit, owners get only residual.

• Statement III ✓ — in winding-up/insolvency, debt is repaid before equity; bondholders rank above stockholders. This also explains lower risk.

Both II and III independently justify why bondholders are lower-risk than stockholders.

— Option A

• I ✓ — India accounts for nearly 78% of global equity option contracts by volume (FIA 2023 data) — a huge boom.

• II ✓ — In early 2024, India's market cap overtook Hong Kong's, becoming the world's 4th largest stock market.

• III ✗ — SEBI is the statutory regulator that issues investor warnings about F&O risks and takes action against unregistered investment advisors (e.g., recent advisories on retail F&O losses, action on 'finfluencers').

— Option A

• Statement I ✓ — circular economy reduces GHG emissions (reuse/recycle replaces fresh extraction and manufacturing).

• Statement II ✓ — by reusing and recycling, the demand for virgin raw materials falls. Less mining/extraction ⇒ less embedded emissions ⇒ explains I.

• Statement III ✓ — closed-loop production minimises process waste; less waste ⇒ less landfill methane, less incineration CO₂ ⇒ explains I.

Both II and III are independent causes that explain the GHG reduction in I.

— Option A

• I ✓ — standard definition: capital receipts either create a liability (e.g., borrowings) or reduce assets (e.g., disinvestment, loan recoveries).

• II ✓ — borrowings create a liability and disinvestment reduces an asset, so both are capital receipts.

• III ✗ — interest received on loans is a revenue receipt (it is income, not a liability). Interest paid would be a revenue expenditure. Interest received creates no liability for the Government.

— Option A

• I ✓ — Roy was deeply versed in Vedanta, Upanishads, Sufism, Persian and Arabic philosophy; he translated the Upanishads into Bengali and English. He valued the rational core of Eastern traditions.

• II ✓ — he founded the Brahmo Sabha (1828) advocating reason, monotheism, and equality; campaigned against sati, polygamy, and for women's rights and modern (English) education.

Both statements describe him accurately.

— Option C

Nagpur Session (Dec 1920) endorsed Gandhi's Non-Cooperation Programme:

• I ✓ — boycott of law-courts and foreign cloth was a central plank.

• II ✓ — strict non-violence was the defining moral principle; the movement was called off after Chauri Chaura precisely because of this.

• III ✗ — programme called for surrender of titles and honours conferred by the British (Tagore returned his knighthood), NOT retention.

• IV ✓ — arbitration panchayats were to be set up to settle disputes outside British courts.

Three items are correct.

— Option C

Araghatta (literally 'rotating wheel') is the Sanskrit term for the Persian wheel-type water-lifting device: a vertical wheel with earthen pots (ghatas) tied to the rims/spokes that scoop water from a well as the wheel turns.

• A ✗ — describes the charas/mhote (leather bag over a pulley).

• B ✓ — classic description of the araghatta/rahat.

• C ✗ — describes a bullock-driven single pot device, not araghatta.

• D ✗ — describes a simple manual bucket-lift (denkli/shaduf-like), not a wheel.

— Option B

The Pallava king Mahendravarman I (c. 600–630 CE) is famous for his multifaceted personality and adopted these literary titles:

• Mattavilasa — author of the Sanskrit farce *Mattavilasa Prahasana*.

• Vichitrachitta ('curious-minded') — patron of rock-cut architecture; pioneer of cave temples at Mandagapattu.

• Gunabhara ('bearer of virtues') — inscriptional title found at Tiruchirappalli.

Simhavishnu (B) was his grandfather; Narasimhavarman I (C) defeated Pulakeshin II at Vatapi; Simhavarman (D) was earlier Pallava.

— Option A

Fa-hien (Faxian) travelled to India c. 399–414 CE seeking Buddhist texts. This period falls within the reign of Chandragupta II 'Vikramaditya' (c. 380–414 CE). His account *Fo-Kuo-Ki* describes a peaceful and prosperous Madhyadesha under the Guptas.

• A ✗ — Samudragupta (c. 335–375) ruled earlier.

• C ✗ — Kumaragupta I (c. 415–455) was after Fa-hien left.

• D ✗ — Skandagupta (c. 455–467) is much later; Huns invaded in his reign.

— Option B

Rajendra I Chola (c. 1014–1044 CE) launched a famous naval expedition c. 1025 CE across the Bay of Bengal and defeated the Shailendra ruler Sangrama Vijayottungavarman of Srivijaya (Sumatra/Malay archipelago). The Tanjavur inscription lists his conquests of Kadaram (Kedah), Sri Vishaya, Pannai, Malaiyur, etc.

• A ✗ — Amoghavarsha was a Deccan ruler, no SE-Asian campaign.

• B ✗ — Prataparudra Kakatiya (13th–14th c.) ruled inland Telangana.

• D ✗ — Hoysala Vishnuvardhana was a Karnataka ruler.

— Option C

Among the 16 Mahajanapadas:

• I. Asmaka — Godavari ✓ — only southern Mahajanapada, capital Potali/Potana on the Godavari (modern Maharashtra/Andhra border).

• II. Kamboja — Vipas ✗ — Kamboja lay in the far north-west (Hindukush region, capital Rajapura); the Vipas (Beas) is a Punjab river not associated with Kamboja.

• III. Avanti — Mahanadi ✗ — Avanti's capitals were Ujjain (on Shipra) and Mahishmati (on Narmada). It had no link with the Mahanadi.

• IV. Kosala — Sarayu ✓ — Kosala's capital Shravasti/Ayodhya lay on the Sarayu (Ghaghra).

Two pairs correct.

— Option B

Vishnu Digambar Paluskar founded the first Gandharva Mahavidyalaya at Lahore on 5 May 1901, the pioneering institution that systematized Hindustani classical music teaching outside the traditional guru-shishya gharanas, with printed notation and open admission.

A branch was later opened at Bombay (1908); Delhi/Gwalior/Ujjain had no Paluskar-founded school in 1901.

— Option D

In Ashoka's 3rd Major Rock Edict, the king directs the Pradeshika (head of a district), Rajuka (revenue/justice officer of a district) and Yukta (subordinate revenue/clerical officer) to undertake a quinquennial *anusamyana* (tour of inspection). All three operate at the district (pradesha) level, between the province and the village.

• A ✗ — village officers were the *gramika*.

• C ✗ — provinces were governed by kumaras/aryaputras.

• D ✗ — central administration had the mahamattas and tirthas.

— Option B

• I ✓ — at the Nagpur Congress (Dec 1920) the constitution was amended: the goal of Congress was declared as 'attainment of Swaraj by all legitimate and peaceful means'.

• II ✓ — Gandhi designed the programme in stages (surrender of titles → boycott of schools/courts/councils/foreign cloth → resignations from government service → and civil disobedience including non-payment of taxes as the final stage), to be invoked only if Swaraj did not arrive within a year and the Government turned repressive.

— Option C

NATO membership status:

• I. Austria ✗ — constitutionally neutral; not a NATO member.

• II. Bulgaria ✓ — joined NATO in 2004.

• III. Croatia ✓ — joined NATO in 2009.

• IV. Serbia ✗ — pursues military neutrality; not a member.

• V. Sweden ✓ — joined NATO in March 2024.

• VI. North Macedonia ✓ — joined NATO in 2020.

Four countries are NATO members.

— Option B

The Andes form a continuous chain along the western edge of South America, running through seven countries: Venezuela, Colombia, Ecuador, Peru, Bolivia, Chile, Argentina.

• I. Bolivia ✓

• II. Brazil ✗ — Brazil lies east of the Andes (Brazilian highlands instead).

• III. Colombia ✓

• IV. Ecuador ✓

• V. Paraguay ✗ — landlocked east of the Andes; only the Gran Chaco lowlands.

• VI. Venezuela ✓ (Andean spur enters Mérida).

Four countries from the list.

— Option C

• I. Lake Tanganyika ✗ — lies roughly between 3°S and 9°S in East Africa; equator passes well to its north (through Lake Victoria, not Tanganyika).

• II. Lake Tonlé Sap ✗ — located in Cambodia around 12°–13°N; far north of the equator.

• III. Patos Lagoon ✗ — lies in southern Brazil around 30°–32°S; far south of the equator.

The equator passes through none of them.

— Option D

• I ✓ — India produces about 75% of global turmeric and is the world's largest producer, consumer and exporter.

• II ✓ — over 30 varieties are cultivated across India (e.g., Salem, Erode, Sangli, Rajapuri, Lakadong, Alleppey Finger).

• III ✓ — Maharashtra, Telangana, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu are among the top producing States (along with Andhra Pradesh).

All three are factually correct, supporting the announcement of the National Turmeric Board (Oct 2023).

— Option D

Classic Wegener evidences for continental drift:

• I ✓ — Jig-saw fit and rock-belt match: the Pre-Cambrian rock belts of the Brazilian coast continue into West Africa with the same age and composition.

• II ✓ — Placer-deposit evidence: gold-bearing veins of Ghana correspond to the source rocks of the Brazilian plateau; this distribution makes sense only if the two were once joined.

• III ✓ — Gondwana sediments: the Indian Gondwana sequence (coal, glacial Talchir tillites) has counterparts in Africa, South America, Antarctica, Australia, Madagascar and Falkland Islands — six Southern Hemisphere landmasses.

All three are recognised evidences.

— Option C

Statement I: Correct. Subtropical belts host the world's great hot deserts (Sahara, Arabian, Thar) and temperate interiors have semi-arid steppes; dry, bare surfaces + strong winds loft huge amounts of dust. Equatorial regions are wet (rain washes air clean) and polar regions are ice-covered with little loose soil — so both have very low dust loads.

Statement II: Incorrect. Subtropical and temperate areas in fact have more dry winds — trade winds blowing over deserts, dry westerlies, hot loo, harmattan, etc. The premise is reversed.

So I is right, II is wrong — Option C.

Statement I: Correct. January is NH winter. Land cools faster than ocean (lower specific heat), so a given isotherm has to dip toward the equator over the cold continents (Asia, N. America) and bulge poleward over the relatively warm oceans (N. Atlantic, N. Pacific) — exactly the classic textbook pattern.

Statement II: Correct. In winter, oceans retain summer heat far longer than land; NH ocean surfaces are warmer than the snow-covered continents.

The warmer ocean air is precisely why the isotherms bend poleward over oceans and equatorward over land — Statement II explains Statement I. Option A.

Statement I: Accepted as given — chalk permeable, clay impermeable.

Statement II: Correct. Chalk has large, well-connected pore spaces between calcite grains, so water both enters (porosity) and flows through (permeability). This directly explains why chalk is permeable.

Statement III: Incorrect. Clay is highly porous (often 40–60% void space) — but its pores are extremely fine and poorly connected, so water cannot move through. That is why clay is impermeable despite being porous. Saying clay is "not at all porous" is wrong.

Only II is correct, and it explains I — Option C.

I: Correct. Without an atmosphere Earth's mean surface temperature would be about $-18^{\circ}C$ instead of $+15^{\circ}C$ — well below freezing.

II: Correct. The natural greenhouse effect — absorption and re-emission of long-wave radiation by atmospheric gases — keeps the planet's average temperature liveable.

III: Correct. $CO_2$, water vapour, methane etc. are strong absorbers of outgoing infrared radiation; this is exactly why $CO_2$ is the central concern in global warming.

All three correct — Option C.

I: Correct. A stated rationale of the Mission is rural-poor upliftment — most indigenous, low-yielding cattle are kept by small/marginal farmers and landless labourers, so productivity gains in this stock directly help the rural poor.

II: Correct. RGM was launched in December 2014 (DAHD) for the development and conservation of indigenous bovine breeds (cattle and buffalo) in a scientific and holistic manner — exactly the official objective.

Both correct — Option C.

Statement I: Cement is widely cited as ~7–8% of global $CO_2$ — so ">5%" is correct.

Statement II: Correct. Cement raw mix is essentially limestone + silica-bearing clay/shale, plus small amounts of iron oxide and alumina. But this only describes the recipe — it does not by itself produce $CO_2$.

Statement III: Correct AND explains I. In the kiln, $CaCO_3 \to CaO + CO_2$ (calcination). About 60% of cement's $CO_2$ comes from this chemical conversion of limestone to lime; the rest is from fuel burning. So III directly explains why cement is such a big emitter.

Both II and III are correct, but only III explains I — Option B.

Statement I: Correct. India did not sign the COP28 Declaration on Climate and Health.

Statement II: Incorrect. The Declaration is a political/voluntary declaration, not legally binding. Signing it does not legally mandate decarbonisation of the health sector.

Statement III: Correct and explains I. India's stated concern was precisely this — emission-cut targets on health infrastructure (cold-chain, ambulances, hospitals running on diesel back-up etc.) could undermine the resilience of healthcare delivery, especially in rural India. That is why India refrained.

Only III is correct and it explains I — Option C.

Statement I: Correct. Recent studies (NASA, ETH Zurich) confirm measurable shifts in Earth's rotation rate (length-of-day changes) and a drift of the rotational axis (polar motion).

Statement II: Correct as a fact — solar flares and CMEs do dump enormous energy into the outer atmosphere — but this energy heats and expands the thermosphere, it does not shift Earth's rotational axis. So II does not explain I.

Statement III: Correct and explains I. Melting polar ice redistributes mass from the poles toward the equator (and to mid-latitude reservoirs). By conservation of angular momentum and a change in the moment of inertia, this measurably slows rotation and shifts the pole — directly explaining I.

Both II and III are correct, but only III explains I — Option B.

Statement I: Correct. Article 6 (carbon-market rulebook, ITMOs, Article 6.2 / 6.4 / 6.8) has been the most-debated item across recent COPs.

Statement II: Correct. Article 6.2 (cooperative approaches with ITMOs) and 6.4 (a new UN-supervised crediting mechanism) lay down the principles of international carbon markets.

Statement III: Correct. Article 6.8 explicitly establishes a framework for non-market approaches — finance, technology transfer and capacity building between countries — to help meet NDCs.

Both market (II) and non-market (III) tracks together make Article 6 the focal point of climate negotiations, so both explain I — Option A.

The Asian Development Bank (ADB) launched the Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific (announced at COP28, Dec 2023) to mobilise finance for nature-based solutions across the region.

• AIIB → infrastructure financing, no such hub.

• NDB → BRICS bank, unrelated.

• IBRD → World Bank arm, unrelated.

Option A.

Direct Air Capture (DAC) extracts $CO_2$ directly from ambient air.

I: Correct. Captured $CO_2$ can be injected into geological formations for permanent storage — i.e., carbon sequestration.

II: Correct. DAC $CO_2$ is used as feedstock for polymers/plastics and as food-grade $CO_2$ for carbonated beverages and modified-atmosphere packaging.

III: Correct. Captured $CO_2$ + green $H_2$ $\to$ synthetic e-fuels (e-kerosene / SAF) for aviation — a major near-term DAC application.

All three correct — Option C.

I: Incorrect. The Peacock/Gooty tarantula (*Poecilotheria metallica*) is an arachnid (spider), not a crustacean, and it is carnivorous (eats insects, small vertebrates), not omnivorous.

II: Correct. It is endemic to a very small patch of deciduous forest in Andhra Pradesh (around Gooty / Nallamala area) — its natural habitat is limited to a few forest pockets in India.

III: Correct. In the wild it is arboreal, living in holes and crevices high up in tall trees.

II and III correct — Option D.

I: Incorrect. India's per-capita $CO_2$ emissions are about $1.9$–$2.0\,t\,CO_2$ per person — well above the $0.5\,t$ threshold given.

II: Correct. Among Asia-Pacific countries India ranks second in fuel-combustion $CO_2$ emissions, after China.

III: Correct. The electricity and heat (power) sector — dominated by coal-fired generation — is the single largest source of India's $CO_2$ emissions (~50%+).

Only II and III are correct — Option C.

• I. Cassava — Woody shrub ✓ Perennial woody shrub of the Euphorbiaceae.

• II. Ginger — Herb with pseudostem ✓ Rhizomatous herb; "stem" is a pseudostem made of leaf sheaths.

• III. Malabar spinach — Herbaceous climber ✓ *Basella alba* is a soft-stemmed climbing vine.

• IV. Mint — Annual shrub ✗ Mint is a perennial herb, not an annual and not a shrub.

• V. Papaya — Woody shrub ✗ Papaya is a large herbaceous (single-stemmed) tree/plant with a soft, non-woody, hollow stem — not a woody shrub.

Three correct (I, II, III) — Option B.

I: Incorrect. Oceans, mainly through phytoplankton and photosynthetic bacteria, produce about half of the world's oxygen. Rain forests do not produce more oxygen than oceans.

II: Correct. Marine phytoplankton and photosynthetic bacteria account for roughly 50% of global $O_2$ production.

III: Incorrect. Air contains about $210\,mL$ oxygen per litre of air. Well-oxygenated surface water has only about $8\,mg/L$ dissolved $O_2$, roughly $5.6\,mL$ gas-equivalent per litre of water. So surface water has far less oxygen than air, not several-fold more.

Only II is correct — Option B.

"Alternative powertrain" = anything other than the conventional ICE (petrol/diesel) drivetrain.

• I. Full BEV — pure electric motor + battery; alternative powertrain ✓

• II. Hydrogen FCV — fuel cell + electric motor; alternative powertrain ✓

• III. Fuel-cell electric hybrid — fuel cell + battery + electric motor; alternative powertrain ✓

All three qualify — Option C.

All three statements use the universal "All types of UAVs" — easy to falsify with one counter-example each.

I: Incorrect. Fixed-wing UAVs (e.g., long-endurance surveillance drones) need a runway/catapult/parachute — they cannot do VTOL.

II: Incorrect. Hovering is a multirotor/helicopter capability. Fixed-wing UAVs must keep forward airspeed to generate lift and cannot hover.

III: Incorrect. Many UAVs run on petrol/avgas IC engines or jet fuel (e.g., MALE/HALE drones like Predator, Heron); battery is not the only power source.

None correct — Option D.

Typical Li-ion EV cathode chemistries (NMC, NCA, LFP, LCO) use:

• I. Cobalt ✓ — in NMC/NCA/LCO cathodes.

• III. Lithium ✓ — Li is the active ion in every Li-ion cathode.

• IV. Nickel ✓ — in NMC/NCA cathodes.

• II. Graphite ✗ — graphite is the standard anode material, not the cathode.

Three out of four (Co, Li, Ni) make up cathodes — Option C.

• I. Cigarette butts ✓ — the filter is made of cellulose acetate, a plastic; cigarette butts are now the world's most-littered plastic item.

• II. Eyeglass lenses ✓ — modern lenses are mostly polycarbonate / CR-39 (allyl diglycol carbonate) — plastics.

• III. Car tyres ✓ — tyres are a blend of natural rubber with synthetic polymers (SBR, butadiene rubber); tyre wear is a major source of microplastics.

All three contain plastic — Option C.

Coal gasification produces syngas ($CO + H_2$), which is useful for several downstream chemicals.

• I. Ethanol ✓ Syngas can be converted to ethanol through catalytic or biological routes.

• II. Nitroglycerine ✗ Nitroglycerine is made by nitrating glycerol. Glycerol is normally obtained from fats/oils, biodiesel by-product streams, or petrochemical routes; treating coal-derived nitric acid as enough to count is too remote for this question.

• III. Urea ✓ Syngas supplies $H_2$ for ammonia; ammonia reacts with $CO_2$ to produce urea.

Only two substances, ethanol and urea, fit — Option B.

All three are high-performance military explosives (energetic nitramine/insensitive-high-explosive class):

• CL-20 (HNIW) — one of the most powerful non-nuclear explosives.

• HMX (octogen) — widely used in warheads, shaped charges, propellants.

• LLM-105 — an insensitive high explosive (IHE) used for safer warhead fills.

They are explosives, not refrigerants, not fuels (they detonate, they don't burn as fuel). Option B.

I: Correct. Majorana 1 is a topological-qubit chip designed to enable scalable, more error-tolerant quantum computing.

II: Incorrect. Majorana 1 was unveiled by Microsoft (Feb 2025), not AWS. (AWS's quantum chip line is called "Ocelot".)

III: Correct. Deep learning (neural networks with many layers) is a subset of machine learning, which itself is a subset of AI.

I and III correct — Option C.

I: Correct. Monoclonal antibodies (mAbs) are lab-engineered ("man-made") immunoglobulin proteins, all identical clones from a single B-cell lineage.

II: Correct. They bind specifically to a target antigen and thereby stimulate/modulate immune function (neutralisation, ADCC, complement activation, blocking checkpoints, etc.).

III: Correct. mAbs are used against several viral infections — e.g., m102.4 against Nipah virus (used compassionately in India during Nipah outbreaks), monoclonals for SARS-CoV-2, RSV (palivizumab), Ebola, rabies.

All three correct — Option D.

Each statement uses "No virus" — a single counter-example refutes it.

I: Incorrect. Marine viruses are the most abundant biological entities on Earth — ~$10^{30}$ in oceans (e.g., pelagiphages).

II: Incorrect. Bacteriophages are viruses whose specific job is to infect bacteria; they were discovered over a century ago.

III: Incorrect. Many viruses (HIV, herpesviruses, influenza, SARS-CoV-2) actively reprogram host transcription — shutting off host genes and upregulating viral ones.

None correct — Option D.

Statement I: AC is a "good and attractive" tool — note the two qualities.

Statement II: Correct. AC has very high surface area ($\sim 500$–$2000\,m^2/g$) and strongly adsorbs heavy metals and organics — this is what makes it a good pollutant remover.

Statement III: Correct. AC can be easily synthesised from environmental wastes (coconut shell, rice husk, sawdust, biochar, etc.) — this cheap, waste-derived sourcing is what makes it attractive (economical, sustainable).

Both II (good) and III (attractive) explain different halves of Statement I — both explain I. Option A.

Article 123 gives an Ordinance the same force and effect as an Act of Parliament, but an Ordinance is still a 'law' for Article 13 scrutiny.

Statement I: An Ordinance can amend a Central Act, because it operates like a parliamentary law while it remains in force. ✓

Statement II: Article 13 says the State shall not make any law which takes away or abridges Fundamental Rights. Article 13(3) includes an Ordinance within 'law', so an Ordinance cannot abridge a Fundamental Right in that constitutional sense. ✗

Statement III: An Ordinance can be given retrospective operation, just as a statute can, if the text so provides. ✓

Only I and III are correct — Option C.

Pair I: Arunachal's capital Itanagar is named after the 14th-century Ita Fort. The state has two National Parks — Namdapha and Mouling. ✓

Pair II: Nagaland's statehood was linked to the constitutional framework created by the Constitution (Thirteenth Amendment) Act, 1962, which inserted Article 371A for Nagaland. The State of Nagaland Act, 1962 then operationalised the new state. In the UPSC framing, the pair is correct. ✓

Pair III: Tripura was a Part 'C' State under the 1950 Constitution, became a Union Territory in 1956 (States Reorganisation Act), and attained full statehood by the North-Eastern Areas (Reorganisation) Act, 1971 w.e.f. 1972. ✓

All three pairs are correct — Option C.

I. Inter-State Council: Established by Presidential Order in 1990 under Article 263 of the Constitution. ✓ Constitutional.

II. National Security Council: Set up by an executive order in 1998; no constitutional basis. ✗

III. Zonal Councils: Created by the States Reorganisation Act, 1956 — a statutory body, not a constitutional one. ✗

Only one (Inter-State Council) has a constitutional basis — Option A.

Statement I: Article 163(1) explicitly states that the Governor acts in his discretion in matters which the Constitution requires (e.g., Art. 200 reservation of bills, Art. 356 report, special-responsibility provisions for Nagaland/Assam under Arts. 371A/371B). ✓

Statement II: Under Article 201, only the Governor reserves a state bill for the President's consideration. The President has no suo-motu power to call up a state bill that the Governor has not forwarded. ✗

Only I correct — Option A.

Pair I: Separation of judiciary from executive — Article 50, a Directive Principle. ✓

Pair II: "To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture" — Article 51A(f), a Fundamental Duty. ✓

Pair III: Prohibition of employment of children below 14 years in factories, mines or other hazardous work — Article 24, a Fundamental Right. ✓

All three matched correctly — Option C.

Statement I: Under the Fifth Schedule the State's executive power continues to extend to Scheduled Areas; the Governor only has special regulation-making powers. No local body takes over total administration. ✗

Statement II: The Fifth Schedule does not authorise the Union to take over the total administration of Scheduled Areas on the Governor's recommendation. The Governor reports annually to the President (Para 3), and the Union's executive power extends only to giving directions to the State regarding administration — not assumption of administration. ✗

Neither statement is correct — Option D.

Pair I: National Automotive Board (NAB) — under Ministry of Heavy Industries, not Commerce. ✗

Pair II: Coir Board — under Ministry of MSME (Coir Industry Act, 1953 administered by MSME), not Heavy Industries. ✗

Pair III: National Centre for Trade Information (NCTI) — set up jointly by ITPO and NIC, under Ministry of Commerce and Industry, not MSME. ✗

All three pairs are wrong — Option D.

Article 368(2) proviso lists subjects needing special majority + ratification by at least half of state legislatures.

I. Any of the Lists in the Seventh Schedule — explicitly listed. ✓

II. Extent of executive power of a State (Art. 73 / Art. 162) — explicitly listed under "extent of executive power of the Union and the States". ✓

III. Conditions of the Governor's office (Art. 158) — not listed in the proviso; amendable by special majority alone, no state ratification needed. ✗

Only I and II — Option A.

Statement I: Article 361(1) — Governor is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his office. ✓

Statement II: Article 361(2) — no criminal proceedings whatsoever shall be instituted or continued against the Governor during his term of office. ✓

Statement III: Article 194(2) — no member of a State Legislature is liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said in the House. ✓

All three correct — Option D.

PNGRB Act, 2006 defines the Board's mandate as regulating refining, processing, storage, transportation, distribution, marketing and sale of petroleum, petroleum products and natural gas — excluding production of crude oil and natural gas (which fall under DGH / Ministry of Petroleum).

I. Production of crude oil — not regulated by PNGRB. ✗

II. Refining, storage and distribution of petroleum — regulated. ✓

III. Marketing and sale of petroleum products — regulated. ✓

IV. Production of natural gas — not regulated by PNGRB. ✗

Two activities — Option B.

Revenue deficit $=$ revenue expenditure minus revenue receipts.

• Revenue expenditure: ₹ 80,000 cr

• Revenue receipts: ₹ 60,000 cr

• Revenue deficit: ₹ 20,000 cr ✓

Fiscal deficit is reflected by government borrowings here.

• Borrowings given: ₹ 10,000 cr ✓

Primary deficit $=$ fiscal deficit minus interest payments.

• Fiscal deficit: ₹ 10,000 cr

• Interest payments: ₹ 6,000 cr

• Primary deficit: ₹ 4,000 cr ✓

All three statements are correct — Option D.

The INSTC (signed by India, Iran and Russia in 2000) is a 7,200-km multimodal route linking Mumbai → Bandar Abbas (Iran) → Caspian Sea → Russia → Northern Europe, with branches into Central Asia.

• Option A: India → Central Asia → Europe via Iran — accurate description. ✓

• Option B: Routes via China — wrong; China is not on INSTC. ✗

• Option C: SE Asia via Bangladesh/Myanmar — that's the Trilateral Highway/Kaladan, not INSTC. ✗

• Option D: Europe via Azerbaijan only — Azerbaijan is one transit, but the corridor's defining feature is Iran, not Azerbaijan. ✗

Option A.

Statement I: The USA is the world's largest ethanol producer (~15 billion gallons/yr), exceeding Brazil's ~8 billion gallons/yr. So Brazil produces less, not more. ✗

Statement II: In the USA the principal feedstock is corn, while in Brazil it is sugarcane — factually correct. ✓

Statement I incorrect, Statement II correct — Option D.

The World Bank warning is a climate-risk warning. It covers extreme heat stress as well as associated climate hazards.

Statement I: Peninsular/coastal India is vulnerable to climate-linked flooding, tropical cyclones and droughts. This is a report-level implication of rising climate stress. ✓

Statement II: Wet-bulb temperature combines heat and humidity. Around $35\,°C$ wet-bulb, sweating no longer cools the body effectively, so survival of humans and other animals is threatened. ✓

Both I and II are correct — Option C.

Gross primary deficit $=$ fiscal deficit minus interest payments.

• Fiscal deficit: ₹ 50,000 cr

• Interest liabilities: ₹ 1,500 cr

• Gross primary deficit: ₹ 48,500 cr

The non-debt-creating capital receipts are already accounted for in the given fiscal deficit, so they must not be subtracted again.

Option A.

I. Grant of ₹ 4,800 cr (2022-23 to 2025-26) for incentivising states on educational outcomes — correct recommendation. ✓

II. Vertical share — 15th FC recommended 41% (not 45%) of net Union tax proceeds to states (reduced from 14th FC's 42% to adjust for J&K becoming a UT). ✗

III. ₹ 45,000 cr as performance-based incentive for agricultural reforms — correct. ✓

IV. Tax effort was reintroduced as a horizontal devolution criterion (2.5% weight) to reward states' own fiscal performance. ✓

I, III and IV — Option C.

I. IBRD lends and gives guarantees to middle-income and creditworthy low-income countries — correct. ✓

II. IBRD does not work alone; it is part of the World Bank Group (along with IDA, IFC, MIGA, ICSID) and partners with the UN, regional banks, donors etc. ✗

III. Created at Bretton Woods (1944) to finance reconstruction of war-torn Europe after WWII — correct. ✓

I and III — Option C.

Statement I: RTGS settles each transaction individually and instantly (real-time gross), while NEFT works on deferred net settlement in half-hourly batches — takes some time. ✓

Statement II: RBI has prohibited charging for inward transactions in both RTGS and NEFT. ✗

Statement III: Since 14 Dec 2020, RTGS is available 24×7×365 with no day restriction; NEFT became 24×7 in Dec 2019. ✗

Only I correct — Option A.

Countries where UPI is live for international merchant acceptance (via NIPL tie-ups):

• UAE — via NeoPay/Mashreq, Network International ✓

• France — first European country (Eiffel Tower, Lyra) ✓

• Singapore — via PayNow-UPI linkage and NETS ✓

• Germany — not yet live for UPI merchant payments ✗

• Bangladesh — not live for UPI merchant payments ✗

Three countries — Option B.

I. Launched Feb 2024, the scheme explicitly targets 1 crore residential rooftop solar installations. ✓

II. MNRE's capacity-building component provides grassroots training in installation, O&M and repair of rooftop systems through Suryamitra-type programmes. ✓

III. Scheme guidelines target creation of over 3 lakh skilled manpower via fresh skilling and up-skilling under the capacity-building component. ✓

All three correct — Option D.

The line "Sedition has become my religion" is associated with Gandhi's Civil Disobedience/Salt Satyagraha phase in 1930. He used it while defending non-violent disobedience against an unjust colonial law.

• A — Champaran (1917): An earlier agrarian satyagraha; not the context of this statement. ✗

• B — Dandi Salt Law violation: The best match among the options, because it was the symbolic public defiance at the centre of the Salt Satyagraha. ✓

• C — Second Round Table Conference (1931): A negotiation setting, not the Salt Law defiance. ✗

• D — Quit India (1942): Associated with "Do or Die", not this statement. ✗

Option B.

The 10.5 cm 'Dancing Girl' from Mohenjo-daro (c. 2500 BCE, now in the National Museum, New Delhi) was cast by the lost-wax (cire perdue) technique in bronze — making it one of the earliest known bronze sculptures in the world.

• A — Carnelian: Used for Harappan beads, not for this figurine. ✗

• B — Clay: Terracotta figurines exist, but this one is metal. ✗

• C — Bronze: Correct material. ✓

• D — Gold: No; Harappan goldwork is mainly ornaments. ✗

Option C.

After the Feb 1922 Chauri Chaura incident, 172 accused were initially sentenced to death by the sessions court. Madan Mohan Malaviya, along with Krishna Kant Malaviya (a Banaras lawyer), led the appeal before the Allahabad High Court and got the death sentences of most accused commuted.

• A — C. R. Das: Defended in other political trials but not this one. ✗

• B — Malaviya & Krishna Kant: Documented appellate defence team. ✓

• C — Kitchlew & Hasan Nizami: Not connected to the Chauri Chaura defence. ✗

• D — Jinnah: Did not appear in this case. ✗

Option B.

After the Poona Pact (24 Sept 1932) between Gandhi and Dr. B. R. Ambedkar, separate electorates for the Depressed Classes were replaced by reserved seats in joint electorates. Gandhi then made anti-untouchability and Harijan upliftment a central part of his public programme.

• He helped start the All India Anti-Untouchability League, later known as the Harijan Sevak Sangh.

• He launched the weekly Harijan in 1933.

• He undertook the 1933-34 Harijan Yatra.

• B — Gandhi-Irwin Agreement: Related to Civil Disobedience and political prisoners, not this shift. ✗

• C — Quit India arrests: Much later. ✗

• D — Government of India Act, 1935: Came after the Harijan programme had already begun. ✗

Option A.

All three are American/New World fruits that reached India through early modern Portuguese maritime networks.

• Papaya: Introduced into India after Portuguese contact with tropical America. ✓

• Pineapple: A South American fruit brought to India by the Portuguese. ✓

• Guava: A tropical American fruit introduced into India by the Portuguese. ✓

All three were introduced by the Portuguese in the 16th-17th centuries — Option C.

Count time zones including overseas territories (the standard UN/CIA-factbook basis):

• UK: 9 zones (Pitcairn UTC$-8$ to Indian Ocean territories UTC$+6$) ✓ $>4$

• Denmark: 5 zones (Greenland alone has 4, plus mainland) ✓ $>4$

• New Zealand: 5 zones (NZST, Chatham, Cook, Niue, Tokelau) ✓ $>4$

• Australia: 9 zones (mainland 3 + external territories like Norfolk, Christmas, Cocos, Lord Howe, Macquarie) ✓ $>4$

• Brazil: exactly 4 zones (UTC$-2$ to UTC$-5$) ✗ not $>4$

Four countries (UK, Denmark, NZ, Australia) have more than four time zones; Brazil has exactly four.

— Option B

Anadyr is on UTC$+12$ and Nome is on UTC$-9$, on opposite sides of the International Date Line. The wording 'a few kilometres' is geographically loose; the cities are roughly 800 km apart by air. The intended test is the date-line effect.

Statement I: At comparable local morning/breakfast times, the two places fall on different calendar days because of the IDL. ✓ Correct for the intended date-line point.

Statement II: Nome is about 21 hours behind Anadyr. So when it is Monday in Anadyr, it is Sunday in Nome, not Tuesday. ✗ Wrong.

— Option A

The Self-Respect Movement (Suya Mariyathai Iyakkam) was launched in 1925 in Tamil Nadu by 'Periyar' E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker after he left the Congress. It rejected Brahminical orthodoxy, caste hierarchy, and championed rationalism, women's rights and inter-caste marriages.

• B. R. Ambedkar: led the Dalit movement, founded the Independent Labour Party — different movement. ✗

• Bhaskarrao Jadhav & Dinkarrao Javalkar: Maharashtra-based non-Brahmin/Satyashodhak leaders, not founders of Self-Respect Movement. ✗

— Option A

• I. Botswana — Diamond: ✓ World's top diamond producers by value; Jwaneng and Orapa are major mines (Debswana JV).

• II. Chile — Lithium: ✓ Atacama brines (Salar de Atacama); Chile holds among the largest lithium reserves and is a top-3 producer.

• III. Indonesia — Nickel: ✓ World's largest nickel producer and reserves holder (Sulawesi, Halmahera); major to global EV battery supply chain.

All three correctly matched.

— Option C

• I. Mallorca: largest of the Balearic Islands, belongs to Spain (not Italy). ✗

• II. Normandy: historical region on the northern coast of France (not Spain) — site of D-Day landings. ✗

• III. Sardinia: large Mediterranean island, autonomous region of Italy (not France). ✗

All three are wrongly paired.

— Option D

Statement I: Rare-earth based phosphors, especially compounds doped with europium and terbium, are used in television screens and computer monitors for colour display. ✓

Statement II: Some rare-earth ions show useful luminescent/phosphor behaviour; this is why they are used as activators in screen phosphors. ✓

Linkage: The phosphor/luminescent property directly explains their use in flat screens and monitors. So Statement II explains Statement I.

— Option A

• I. NRP target year is 2030 ('Future Ready' railway by 2030), not 2028. ✗ Not correct.

• II. Kavach is indigenously developed by RDSO with Indian firms (Medha, HBL, Kernex) — not in collaboration with Germany. ✗ Not correct.

• III. Kavach uses RFID tags fitted on tracks in station/block sections for location reference and authority. ✓ Correct.

Statements I and II are not correct.

— Option A

• I. Axiom-4: ISS mission involving India's Gaganyatri; it carried Indian microgravity experiments. ✓

• II. SpaDeX: Its core objective was autonomous rendezvous, docking and undocking of two satellites. The microgravity payloads were on POEM-4, a separate orbital experiment platform using the spent PSLV stage in the same launch, not SpaDeX itself. ✗

• III. Gaganyaan: India's human spaceflight programme is meant to enable crewed LEO missions and supports future microgravity research. ✓

Only two missions, Axiom-4 and Gaganyaan, fit the description.

— Option B

• I. Dornier-228: Twin-turboprop used by Indian Navy/Coast Guard/IAF for maritime patrol, surveillance and SAR. ✓

• II. IL-76: Soviet-origin heavy strategic airlifter (subsonic) — IAF uses it as transport, AWACS (Phalcon) and air-refuelling platform. Not a supersonic combat aircraft. ✗

• III. C-17 Globemaster III: Boeing-built heavy military transport in IAF's No. 81 Squadron. ✓

Two pairs correctly matched.

— Option B

Cloud seeding for artificial rain (used by IIT-Kanpur for Delhi anti-smog trials) uses AgI (silver iodide) and KI (potassium iodide) along with NaCl/dry ice.

• AgI has a hexagonal crystal structure very similar to ice — it serves as a nucleating agent around which supercooled water droplets crystallize. ✓

• KI is a hygroscopic salt that helps droplets grow.

• Silver nitrate is not the standard seeding agent. ✗

• Potassium nitrate/chloride combinations are not the established seeding mix. ✗

— Option A

Statement I: In Maru Ram (1980), Kehar Singh (1989) and Epuru Sudhakar (2006), the Supreme Court held that pardon under Article 72 is subject to limited judicial review on grounds like mala fide, arbitrariness, non-application of mind, or irrelevant considerations. ✓ Correct.

Statement II: Article 72 is an executive function. Under Article 74(1) the President must act on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers (Shamsher Singh, 1974). The President cannot exercise it independently of the Central Government. ✗ Wrong.

— Option A

• I. Article 94(a) proviso: on dissolution of Lok Sabha, the Speaker does not vacate office until immediately before the first meeting of the next Lok Sabha. ✓ Correct.

• II. No constitutional provision compels the Speaker to resign from her political party. It is only a British convention followed in some cases; the Constitution is silent. ✗ Wrong.

• III. Article 94(c): Speaker may be removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all the then members with at least 14 days' notice. ✓ Correct.

I and III only.

— Option C

• I. Under paragraph 6 of the Tenth Schedule, the question of disqualification on the ground of defection is decided by the Speaker (or Chairman) of the House, not the President. ✗ Wrong.

• II. The expression 'political party' is used in the Constitution — e.g., Tenth Schedule (defection), and the 52nd, 91st Amendments all repeatedly mention political party. Also Article 102(2), 191(2). ✗ Wrong.

Neither statement is correct.

— Option D

Statement I: Under Section 15 of the MMDR Act, 1957, State Governments are explicitly empowered to make rules for grant of concessions (quarry leases, etc.) for minor minerals within their territory. ✗ Wrong.

Statement II: Under Section 3(e) of the MMDR Act, the Central Government has the power to declare/notify any mineral as a 'minor mineral' (e.g., sand, building stone, limeshell were so notified). ✓ Correct.

So Statement I is wrong, Statement II is correct.

— Option D

The Nature Restoration Law (NRL) was adopted by the European Union — Council formally approved it on 17 June 2024. It is the first continent-wide, legally binding regulation requiring restoration of at least 20% of EU's land and sea areas by 2030, and all degraded ecosystems by 2050. ✓

• World Bank / OECD / FAO: are international agencies that issue reports, finance projects or set non-binding guidelines — they do not enact laws. ✗

— Option A

• I. Article 243B(2) proviso says an intermediate-level Panchayat need not be constituted in a State with population not exceeding 20 lakh. Therefore it is not present in all States. ✗ Wrong.

• II. Article 243F: minimum age to be a Panchayat member is 21 years, not 30. ✗ Wrong.

• III. Article 243-I: the State Finance Commission is constituted by the Governor, not the Chief Minister. ✗ Wrong.

All three statements are not correct.

— Option D

• I. Seven members — Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Myanmar, Nepal, Sri Lanka and Thailand. ✓

• II. BIMSTEC came into being through the Bangkok Declaration of 6 June 1997, not the Dhaka Declaration, 1999. ✗

• III. The 1997 founding members were Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka and Thailand; Nepal and Bhutan joined in 2004. ✗

• IV. In the reorganised structure, Nepal leads the People-to-People Contact sector, which includes tourism. India leads the Security sector, not tourism. ✗

Only I is correct.

— Option D

The Gandhi Peace Prize jury (instituted 1995, Ministry of Culture) is constituted as:

• Chairperson — Prime Minister of India ✓ (II)

• Chief Justice of India ✓ (III)

• Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha ✓ (IV) (or leader of the single largest opposition party)

• Lok Sabha Speaker

• One eminent person

The President of India is not a jury member. ✗ (I)

So II, III and IV are correct.

— Option C

GAGAN is a Satellite-Based Augmentation System (SBAS) jointly developed by ISRO and AAI.

• I. It is designed to provide additional accuracy, availability and integrity over standard GPS through INRES, INMCC and INLUS ground infrastructure. ✓

• II. It improves position reporting and enables more uniform, high-quality Air Traffic Management. ✓

• III. It is not aviation-only; it also benefits maritime, highways and railways. ✗

I and II only.

— Option D

• I. The Paris AI Action Summit (10–11 Feb 2025) at Grand Palais was co-chaired by France and India (PM Modi), explicitly building on the Bletchley Park Summit, Nov 2023 and Seoul Summit, May 2024. ✓

• II. 61 countries (including India, France, China) signed the declaration on 'Inclusive and Sustainable AI', but the United States and the United Kingdom notably refused to sign it. ✗

Only I.

— Option A

UN General Assembly designations:

• I. International Year of the Woman Farmer — 2026. ✓

• II. International Year of Sustainable and Resilient Tourism — 2027. ✓

• III. International Year of Peace and Trust — 2025. ✓

• IV. International Year of Asteroid Awareness and Planetary Defence — 2029, linked to the close and safe Apophis flyby on 13 April 2029. ✓

All four pairs are correctly matched.

— Option D

• I. 16th BRICS Summit held 22–24 October 2024 at Kazan, Russia under Russia's chairship. ✓

• II. Indonesia became a full member on 6 January 2025, announced by Brazil (2025 chair). ✓

• III. The actual theme was 'Strengthening Multilateralism for Just Global Development and Security' — Multilateralism, NOT 'Multiculturalism'. ✗

I and II correct.

— Option A

• I. Section 14 of the Lokpal Act, 2013 covers public servants whether inside or outside India — so jurisdiction extends to Indians posted abroad too. ✗

• II. Section 3(3) allows the Chairperson to be a former CJI, OR a former SC judge, OR an eminent person — not 'only the CJI'. ✗

• III. Section 3(4)(a): Chairperson/Member must be at least 45 years of age on date of assuming office. ✓

• IV. Section 14(1)(a) permits Lokpal to inquire into allegations against a sitting PM, subject to restrictions (excluding international relations, security, atomic energy, etc.) and a 2/3 full-bench approval. So 'cannot inquire' is wrong. ✗

Only III is correct.

— Option A

• I. First Kho Kho World Cup held at Indira Gandhi Indoor Stadium, New Delhi, 13–19 January 2025. ✓

• II. Men's final: India beat Nepal 54–36 (not 78–40). The scoreline 78–40 is from the women's final. ✗

• III. Women's final: India beat Nepal 78–40 (not 54–36). The 54–36 score is from the men's final. ✗

The scores in II and III are swapped. Only I is correct.

— Option A

• I. Gukesh's youngest-ever world title came at the World Chess Championship 2024 in Singapore, where he beat Ding Liren of China — NOT at the 45th Chess Olympiad, and NOT against Nepomniachtchi (Russian). At the 45th Olympiad (Budapest 2024), India won the team gold. ✗

• II. Abhimanyu Mishra (USA) became GM on 30 June 2021 at age 12 years, 4 months, 25 days — the youngest GM ever, breaking Sergey Karjakin's record. ✓

Only II is correct.

— Option B