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UPSC Prelims 2026 GS (Paper I · Set A)

All 100 questions of UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2026 GS (Paper I · Set A) with the official answer key and detailed explanations, in English.

  • 100 questions
  • 120 minutes
  • Paper I · Set A
  • English

Question 1 of 100

Which one of the following Carnatic music ragas is similar to Raga Bilawal in Hindustani music?

  1. ANat Bhairavi
  2. BKamavardhini
  3. CHanumatodi
  4. DDheera Shankarabharanam

Correct answer Option D

Explanation

Hindustani Bilawal is the natural major scale using all shuddha swaras (S R G M P D N).

  • Nat Bhairavi (Carnatic): aligns with Hindustani Asavari/Kafi family, not Bilawal. ✗
  • Kamavardhini (51st Mela, Pantuvarali): equivalent to Hindustani Puriya Dhanashri. ✗
  • Hanumatodi (8th Mela): equivalent to Hindustani Bhairavi. ✗
  • Dheera Shankarabharanam (29th Mela): uses S R2 G3 M1 P D2 N3 — the exact natural major scale of Bilawal. ✓

Option D

Question 2 of 100

The artificially fixed rupee-sterling exchange rate prescribed by the Hilton-Young Commission (1926) was adopted by the British Government for which one of the following reasons?

  1. AAiding the flow of remittances from India and maintaining India's creditworthiness
  2. BProviding support to Indian importers
  3. CEncouraging export of cotton produce from India
  4. DPreventing depreciation of the Rupee in terms of gold

Correct answer Option A

Explanation

The Hilton-Young Commission (1926) fixed the rupee at 1s 6d, an overvalued ratio.

  • A ✓: An overvalued rupee made the Home Charges/remittances (pensions, interest, salaries paid in sterling) cheaper for the Government of India in rupee terms and propped up India's sterling-credit standing in London — the prime British concern.
  • B ✗: Importers were Indian only marginally; the benefit accrued chiefly to British exporters into India.
  • C ✗: An overvalued rupee actually discouraged Indian cotton exports by raising their sterling price.
  • D ✗: The peg was sterling-based; preventing gold-depreciation was not its purpose and India had effectively left the gold standard.

Option A

Question 3 of 100

Consider the following statements:

I. Pali texts contain the first definite references to coins, e.g., $kahapana$, $nikkha$, $kamsa$, and $kakanika$.

II. The literary evidence from Pali texts is corroborated by archaeological evidence of punch-marked coins from many sites, most of them made of silver.

The above statements have been associated with which of the following?

1. Emergence of urban life

2. Transition to money economy

Select the answer using the code given below:

  1. A1 only
  2. B2 only
  3. CBoth 1 and 2
  4. DNeither 1 nor 2

Correct answer Option C

Explanation

Pali references to coins (kahapana, nikkha, kamsa, kakanika) + the silver punch-marked coins from many sites jointly indicate:

  • 1. Emergence of urban life ✓: Pali texts belong to the Second Urbanization (6th c. BCE Gangetic plain); coinage circulates alongside the rise of *mahajanapada* cities like Rajagriha, Kaushambi, Vaishali.
  • 2. Transition to money economy ✓: Named denominations + standardised punch-marked silver coins are the classic index of a shift from barter to coined-metal exchange.

Both inferences are valid and historically linked — coinage lubricates the urban-commercial economy described in Pali literature.

Option C

Question 4 of 100

Which of the following temples has/have a $Nagara$-style $shikhara$?

1. Malegitti Shivalaya, Badami

2. Huchimalligudi Temple, Aihole

3. Dashavatara Temple, Deogarh

4. Virupaksha Temple, Pattadakal

Select the answer using the code given below:

  1. A1 and 2
  2. B2 and 3
  3. C3 only
  4. D3 and 4

Correct answer Option B

Explanation

Nagara shikhara = curvilinear rekha-prasada tower; Dravida = stepped pyramidal vimana.

  • 1. Malegitti Shivalaya, Badami: Early Chalukya temple with a stepped Dravida superstructure, not Nagara. ✗
  • 2. Huchimalligudi Temple, Aihole: Early Chalukya experiment with a rekha-nagara/curvilinear shikhara over the sanctum. ✓
  • 3. Dashavatara Temple, Deogarh: Gupta-period temple with an early Nagara-style shikhara over a panchayatana plan. ✓
  • 4. Virupaksha Temple, Pattadakal: Lokamahadevi's temple, modelled on Kanchi Kailasanatha, is Dravida in style. ✗

Hence only 2 and 3 have Nagara-style shikharas.

Option B

Question 5 of 100

Among the four main forms of existence of life recognized in Jainism, which one of the following is $not$ included?

  1. A$Deva$ (gods)
  2. B$Yaksha$ (demi-gods)
  3. C$Manushya$ (humans)
  4. D$Tiryancha$ (animals and plants)

Correct answer Option B

Explanation

Jainism's four gatis (forms of existence of the soul) are:

  • Deva (gods) ✓
  • Manushya (humans) ✓
  • Tiryancha (animals/plants) ✓
  • Naraki (hell-beings) — the fourth gati, NOT among the options.

Yaksha are sub-classes within the *Deva* gati (Vyantara devas) — they are not an independent fourth category.

Option B

Question 6 of 100

The $Hallisalasya$ painting in the Bagh Caves represents:

  1. AA joyous folk dance
  2. BBuddha in a meditative pose
  3. CThe depiction of Shiva and Parvati on Kailasha
  4. DSamudramanthan (Churning of the Ocean)

Correct answer Option A

Explanation

The Hallisalasya painting in the Bagh Caves (Madhya Pradesh, 5th–7th c.) depicts a circular group dance — Hallisaka being an ancient folk round-dance described in Sanskrit aesthetic texts (Natyashastra, Kavyamimamsa).

  • A ✓: A joyous folk dance — the standard identification of the scene.
  • B ✗: Not a meditating Buddha image.
  • C ✗: Not a Shiva-Parvati Kailasha panel.
  • D ✗: Not a Samudramanthana representation.

Option A

Question 7 of 100

Consider the following statements relating to the use of the place-value system in India:

1. The earliest epigraphic use of the place-value system in India is found in the Mankani plates from Gujarat (AD 595–596).

2. In the ninth century, place-values become general in inscriptions all over India.

3. The place-values have been found in Sanskrit inscriptions in South-east Asia as early as the seventh century.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

  1. A1 and 2 only
  2. B1 and 3 only
  3. C2 and 3 only
  4. D1, 2 and 3

Correct answer Option D

Explanation
  • 1 ✓: The Mankani (Sankheda area) copper plates of Gujarat, dated AD 595–596, carry the earliest epigraphic use of decimal place-value numerals in India.
  • 2 ✓: By the 9th century AD, place-value notation became general across Indian inscriptions (e.g., Gurjara-Pratihara, Rashtrakuta records).
  • 3 ✓: Sanskrit inscriptions in Southeast Asia (Cambodia — Sambor 683 CE; Java) employ place-value notation from the 7th century, often earlier than many Indian survivals.

All three statements are correct.

Option D

Question 8 of 100

Consider the following statements about the archaeological findings in Harappan towns:

I. There is wide occurrence of spindle-whorls in the houses but absence of spinning wheels.

II. Weights and measurement scales, complete with graduations have been discovered.

III. There are houses built in large part with baked bricks, around relatively spacious courtyards, with their own wells, bathing platforms, and large rooms.

Which of the following inferences can be drawn from the above statements?

1. Statement I suggests that spinning was a laborious activity done at home.

2. Statement II suggests the extent of the scientific knowledge that the Harappans possessed.

3. Statement III suggests the emergence of a common property system.

Select the answer using the code given below:

  1. A1 and 2 only
  2. B2 and 3 only
  3. C1 and 3 only
  4. D1, 2 and 3

Correct answer Option A

Explanation
  • I → 1 ✓: Many spindle-whorls but no spinning wheels ⇒ thread was spun by hand at home — labour-intensive household activity.
  • II → 2 ✓: Standardised, graduated weights (in binary-decimal ratios) and measuring scales reveal the Harappans' scientific/measurement knowledge.
  • III → 3 ✗: Large baked-brick houses with their own wells, baths and rooms indicate private household property — the opposite of a 'common property system'.

Hence 1 and 2 only.

Option A

Question 9 of 100

Which one of the following statements about the Eka Movement and Bardoli Satyagraha is correct?

  1. AThe Eka Movement was throughout supported and organized by the Congress while Bardoli Satyagraha was initially independent of Congress influence and was only in the last stages supported by the Congress.
  2. BThe Eka Movement was provided leadership by the $taluqdars$ of Awadh, whereas the Bardoli Satyagraha was a movement of the landless labourers.
  3. CThe Bardoli Satyagraha was a campaign against the enhancement of land revenue, while the Eka Movement was a protest against excessive extraction of rents.
  4. DThe Eka Movement was located in the Varanasi and Mirzapur districts of the present-day U.P., while the Bardoli Satyagraha took place in Saurashtra.

Correct answer Option C

Explanation
  • Eka Movement (1921–22, Hardoi-Sitapur-Bahraich, Awadh): peasant agitation led by Madari Pasi against excessive rent extraction (nazrana, share-rent > 50%) by taluqdars/thekedars. Congress withdrew when the movement turned militant.
  • Bardoli Satyagraha (1928, Surat district, Gujarat): Vallabhbhai Patel led peasant-proprietors against the 22% enhancement in land-revenue assessment.
  • A ✗: Eka was not 'throughout' supported by Congress; Bardoli was Congress-led from the start (Patel).
  • B ✗: Eka was led by low-caste peasants (Madari Pasi), against — not by — taluqdars; Bardoli had peasant-proprietors, not landless labourers.
  • C ✓: Correctly distinguishes Bardoli (land-revenue) from Eka (rent).
  • D ✗: Eka was in Awadh districts (Hardoi etc.), not Varanasi/Mirzapur; Bardoli was in Surat district, not Saurashtra.

Option C

Question 10 of 100

Consider the following statements about the Rigvedic period:

I. Irrigation from wells allowed agriculture to expand away from flood plains and strips on river margins into the present Punjab and Haryana plains having underground water levels reasonably close to the surface.

II. Draught-animal power was employed to draw up water out of the wells.

Which of the following information support/supports the above statements?

1. There is evidence in the $Rigveda$ of the use of $ashma$ $chakra$ (stone pulley wheel) and $ahava$ (strapped wooden pails) to draw up water.

2. Mention has been made in the $Rigveda$ of the use of implements like $parashu$/$kulisha$ (axe) and $datra$/$sreni$ (sickle).

3. There is a history of the use of ox, even before the $Rigveda$, for ploughing the land and pulling the carts.

Select the answer using the code given below:

  1. A1 and 2 only
  2. B1, 2 and 3
  3. C1 and 3 only
  4. D3 only

Correct answer Option C

Explanation

The assertions concern (I) well-irrigation extending into Punjab-Haryana and (II) draught-animal power to lift well-water.

  • 1 ✓: Rigvedic terms ashma-chakra (stone pulley) and ahava (strapped leather/wooden bucket) attest the technology for drawing well-water — directly supports I & II.
  • 2 ✗: Parashu/kulisha (axe) and datra/sreni (sickle) bear on forest-clearing and harvesting, not on wells or draught-animal lifting of water.
  • 3 ✓: Pre-Rigvedic use of oxen for ploughing and cart-drawing shows the availability of bovine draught-power that could be harnessed at wells — supports II.

Hence 1 and 3 only.

Option C

Question 11 of 100

Consider the following assertion:

$In$ $the$ $Pleistocene$ $period$ $either$ $the$ $Yamuna$ $once$ $flowed$ $into$ $the$ $Indus$, $or$ $the$ $Sutlej$ $flowed$ $into$ $the$ $Yamuna$ $and$ $one$ $major$ $tributary$ $of$ $either$ $had$ $shifted$ $from$ $the$ $Ganga$ $to$ $the$ $Indus$ $or$ $vice$ $versa$.

Which of the following is/are the basis of the above assertion?

1. The $Nadi$-$Sukta$ of the $Rigveda$

2. The explorations of the Sutlej and the Yamuna by Robert Bruce Foote

3. The presence of the same species of dolphins in both the Indus and the Ganga river systems

Select the answer using the code given below:

  1. A1 only
  2. B2 only
  3. C1 and 2
  4. D3

Correct answer Option D

Explanation

The assertion is about a possible Pleistocene drainage link between the Indus and Ganga river systems.

  • 1 ✗: The Rigvedic Nadi-Sukta is a textual list of rivers; by itself it cannot establish a Pleistocene river-capture or drainage-shift event.
  • 2 ✗: Robert Bruce Foote is known mainly for Palaeolithic discoveries; this is not the standard basis for the Sutlej-Yamuna drainage-shift inference.
  • 3 ✓: The dolphin evidence is the intended basis. Older history-geography usage treated the Indus and Ganga river dolphins as the same South Asian river-dolphin species/subspecies complex, implying a former hydrological connection between the systems.

Question-quality note: Recent taxonomy often separates them as *Platanista minor* and *Platanista gangetica*. So the phrase same species is dated/contestable, but among the given options only statement 3 supports the assertion.

Option D

Question 12 of 100

What does an empty seat represent in early Buddhist iconography?

  1. AThe meditation of the Buddha
  2. BThe Buddha's First Sermon
  3. CThe Buddha's $Mahaparinibbana$
  4. DThe Buddha's $Mahabhinishkramana$

Correct answer Option A

Explanation

Early Buddhist art (Sanchi, Bharhut, Amaravati) is aniconic — the Buddha is represented by symbols, not human form.

  • A ✓: An empty seat (vajrasana) under the Bodhi tree symbolises the Buddha's meditation/enlightenment.
  • B ✗: The First Sermon is symbolised by the wheel (dharmachakra) flanked by deer.
  • C ✗: The Mahaparinibbana is symbolised by a stupa.
  • D ✗: The Mahabhinishkramana is symbolised by a riderless horse (Kanthaka) with parasol.

Option A

Question 13 of 100

Which of the following pairs of ancient and modern names of rivers is/are correctly matched?

1. Vitasta : Chenab

2. Asikni : Jhelum

3. Parushni : Ravi

4. Yavyavati : Beas

Select the answer using the code given below:

  1. A1 and 2
  2. B3 and 4
  3. C3 only
  4. D4 only

Correct answer Option C

Explanation

Vedic-to-modern river identifications:

  • 1. Vitasta : Chenab ✗ — Vitasta is the Jhelum.
  • 2. Asikni : Jhelum ✗ — Asikni is the Chenab.
  • 3. Parushni : Ravi ✓ — Parushni/Iravati is the Ravi.
  • 4. Yavyavati : Beas ✗ — Beas is Vipasha/Vipas; Yavyavati is variously identified (some link it to the Zhob), but not with the Beas.

Only pair 3 is correctly matched.

Option C

Question 14 of 100

Which of the following statements on the Amaravati Stupa and its relief sculpture is/are correct?

1. It was located in the lower Krishna valley.

2. In India, it was next only to the Sanchi Stupa in size.

3. The Amaravati school of sculpture made a lasting impact on the later South Indian sculpture, and its products were carried to Sri Lanka and South-east Asia.

Select the answer using the code given below:

  1. A1 only
  2. B1 and 3 only
  3. C2 and 3 only
  4. D1, 2 and 3

Correct answer Option B

Explanation

Amaravati Mahachaitya was a major Buddhist stupa of the lower Krishna valley, famous for its limestone relief sculpture.

  • 1 ✓: It was located in the lower Krishna valley at Dharanikota/Amaravati in present-day Andhra Pradesh.
  • 2 ✗: It was not next only to Sanchi in size. Amaravati was about 50 m in diameter, whereas the Great Stupa at Sanchi is about 36.5 m in diameter; Amaravati was larger, not second to Sanchi.
  • 3 ✓: The Amaravati school influenced later South Indian sculpture, and its sculptural products/style travelled to Sri Lanka and South-east Asia.

Hence statements 1 and 3 only are correct.

Option B

Question 15 of 100

Which of the following pairs of the king and his dynasty in early historical Tamilakam is/are $not$ correctly matched?

1. Senguttuvan : Chera

2. Udiyanjeral : Chola

3. Nedunjeliyan : Pandya

Select the answer using the code given below:

  1. A1 and 2
  2. B2 only
  3. C1 and 3
  4. D3 only

Correct answer Option B

Explanation

Question asks for incorrect matches in early Tamilakam.

  • 1. Senguttuvan : Chera ✓ correctly matched — Chera king celebrated in *Silappadikaram* (Pattini cult).
  • 2. Udiyanjeral : Chola ✗ wrongly matched — Udiyanjeral was a Chera king (famed for feeding both armies at Kurukshetra in Sangam legend).
  • 3. Nedunjeliyan : Pandya ✓ correctly matched — Pandya king of Madurai who features as judge in *Silappadikaram*.

Only pair 2 is not correctly matched.

Option B

Question 16 of 100

Which of the following factors contributed to the formation of the Forward Bloc by Subhas Chandra Bose in 1939?

1. Bose failed to win the confidence of Mahatma Gandhi.

2. The Congress Left was disunited and failed to support Bose.

3. The Communists did not support Bose in his endeavours.

4. The supporters of M.N. Roy and socialist leaders like Jayaprakash Narayan preferred Congress unity to supporting Bose.

Select the answer using the code given below:

  1. A1, 2 and 3
  2. B1, 2 and 4
  3. C1, 3 and 4
  4. D2 and 4 only

Correct answer Option B

Explanation

Bose formed the Forward Bloc (May 1939) after resigning the Tripuri Congress presidency.

  • 1 ✓: Bose failed to win Gandhi's confidence — Gandhi treated Pattabhi's defeat as his own; the Pant resolution at Tripuri crippled Bose's working committee.
  • 2 ✓: The Congress Left (CSP, Royists, Forward elements, Communists) was disunited and most of it did not back Bose decisively against the Gandhian centre.
  • 3 ✗: The Communists in 1939 were not the standard cause cited; in fact the CPI's stance was more nuanced and not the decisive factor here.
  • 4 ✓: M.N. Roy's followers and CSP leaders like Jayaprakash Narayan preferred preserving Congress unity (with Gandhi) over backing Bose.

Hence 1, 2 and 4.

Option B

Question 17 of 100

Consider the following statements regarding the British policy in Awadh immediately after its annexation in 1856:

1. The $taluqdars$ were dispossessed of their estates but allowed to retain their arms and forts.

2. A Summary Revenue Settlement was made in 1856 assuming that the $taluqdars$ were outsiders.

3. The British believed in taking revenue directly from the peasants by removing the $taluqdars$.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. A2 and 3 only
  2. B1 and 3 only
  3. C1, 2 and 3
  4. D2 only

Correct answer Option A

Explanation

Awadh was annexed in February 1856 on the stated ground of misgovernment.

  • 1 ✗: Taluqdars were dispossessed and disarmed; many forts were demolished and arms were confiscated. The statement says they retained arms and forts, so it is false.
  • 2 ✓: The Summary Settlement of 1856 treated many taluqdars as outsider-intermediaries with no inherent proprietary right.
  • 3 ✓: The British policy aimed to bypass taluqdars and make revenue arrangements directly with village bodies/cultivators wherever possible.

Hence 2 and 3 only.

Option A

Question 18 of 100

Consider the following assertion:

$The$ $genesis$ $of$ $political$ $alliances$ $based$ $on$ $community$ $lay$ $in$ $the$ $very$ $nature$ $of$ $the$ $Montague$-$Chelmsford$ $Reforms$, $1919$.

Which of the following statements support/supports the above assertion?

1. Reforms retained and extended the principle of separate electorates.

2. Separate electorates were supposed to counter Indian nationalism, which was growing stronger.

3. Deprived classes rallied around the favours inherent in separate electorates.

Select the answer using the code given below:

  1. A1 only
  2. B2 and 3 only
  3. C1 and 2 only
  4. D1, 2 and 3

Correct answer Option D

Explanation

The Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms (Government of India Act, 1919) institutionalised communal politics.

  • 1 ✓: The Act retained and extended separate electorates — beyond Muslims (1909), they were now extended to Sikhs, Anglo-Indians, Europeans, Indian Christians.
  • 2 ✓: Separate electorates were a deliberate British device to fragment Indian nationalism along communal lines, fitting the divide-and-rule template.
  • 3 ✓: Minorities and the depressed classes rallied around the reserved seats and electorates' political safeguards, hardening community-based blocs.

All three support the assertion.

Option D

Question 19 of 100

Pandit Mallikarjun Mansur, the famous classical singer from Karnataka, represented the:

  1. AAgra Gharana
  2. BGwalior Gharana
  3. CPatiala Gharana
  4. DJaipur-Atrauli Gharana

Correct answer Option D

Explanation

Pandit Mallikarjun Mansur (1910–1992), born at Mansur village in Dharwad district, Karnataka, was a doyen of the Jaipur-Atrauli Gharana.

  • He was trained by Manji Khan and Bhurji Khan, the sons of Ustad Alladiya Khan (founder of the Jaipur-Atrauli Gharana).
  • Awarded Padma Vibhushan (1992) and the Kalidas Samman.
  • A, B, C (Agra, Gwalior, Patiala) are different stylistic gharanas to which Mansur did not belong.

Option D

Question 20 of 100

In which one among the following texts does the term $kshetra$-$patni$ ('mistress of the field') originate?

  1. A$Rigveda$
  2. B$Atharvaveda$
  3. C$Ashtadhyayi$
  4. D$Arthashastra$

Correct answer Option B

Explanation

The feminine expression kshetra-patni ('mistress/lady of the field') is associated with the Atharvaveda.

  • A ✗: The Rigveda has the related masculine field deity kshetrapati/kshetrasya pati, not the feminine term asked here.
  • B ✓: The Atharvaveda contains the feminine field expression kshetra-patni in an agrarian ritual context.
  • C ✗: Panini's Ashtadhyayi is a grammar treatise, not the origin of this ritual expression.
  • D ✗: Kautilya's Arthashastra is a statecraft text and does not originate the term.

Option B

Question 21 of 100

Consider the following statements with reference to India's response to climate change:

I. India's Long-Term Low Emission Development Strategy (LT-LEDS) is a crucial tool for achieving net-zero emissions by 2070.

II. India's $4^{th}$ Biennial Update Report (BUR-4) submitted in December, 2024 recorded around 8% decrease in Greenhouse gas emissions in 2020 over 2019.

III. Climate-resilient development necessarily depends on quick and short-term achievement of emission reduction targets.

Which of the following relationships among the above statements is/are correct?

1. Statement I is empirically supported by statement II.

2. Statement III contradicts the approach implicit in statement I.

3. Statement I and statement III together establish the premise of long-term sustainability.

Select the answer using the code given below:

  1. A1 only
  2. B1 and 2
  3. C2 and 3
  4. D3 only

Correct answer Option B

Explanation

Statement I: India's LT-LEDS, submitted at COP27 in 2022, is a long-term strategy for moving towards net-zero emissions by 2070. True.

Statement II: BUR-4, submitted on 30 December 2024, recorded a $7.93\%$ fall in GHG emissions in 2020 compared with 2019. True.

Statement III: Climate-resilient development is a long-term, adaptive process; it is not defined by quick, short-term achievement of emission-reduction targets. False.

Relationship 1: II is not a causal proof that LT-LEDS produced the 2020 fall; the fall predates LT-LEDS. But it is empirical evidence of a downward emissions movement, so it supports the low-emission premise behind I. ✓

Relationship 2: I implies a long-term pathway to 2070, while III makes short-term achievement necessary. That contradicts the approach in I. ✓

Relationship 3: Since III is false and contradicts the long-term approach, I and III cannot together establish long-term sustainability. ✗

Hence relationships 1 and 2 are correct — Option B.

Question 22 of 100

With respect to the Western Hoolock Gibbons, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. A Sanctuary in North-east India is home to this ape species listed as Endangered in the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List.

2. They have specialized brachiation and can easily swing between trees.

3. They possess a strong and heavy build like gorillas, yet are remarkably agile tree climbers.

Select the answer using the code given below:

  1. A1 only
  2. B1 and 2
  3. C2 and 3
  4. D3 only

Correct answer Option B

Explanation

Statement 1: Hoollongapar Gibbon Sanctuary in Assam houses the Western Hoolock Gibbon, listed as Endangered on IUCN Red List. ✓

Statement 2: Gibbons are famed brachiators — their elongated arms enable them to swing tree-to-tree with great speed. ✓

Statement 3: Gibbons are small, slender apes (~6–8 kg), nothing like the heavy-built gorilla (~150+ kg). ✗

Hence 1 and 2 are correct — Option B.

Question 23 of 100

Which of the following best explain(s) the rationale for protecting mangrove ecosystems in the context of climate resilience?

1. Mangroves reduce tidal energy and store freshwater, making them ideal sites for paddy cultivation in saline estuarine belts.

2. Their salt-sensitive roots filter seawater, making mangroves key to converting coastal land into freshwater aquaculture zones.

3. By withstanding tidal surges and offering biomass resources, mangroves function both as natural bio-shields and livelihood bases for rural communities.

Select the answer using the code given below:

  1. A1 only
  2. B1 and 2
  3. C2 and 3
  4. D3 only

Correct answer Option D

Explanation

Statement 1: Mangroves grow in saline/brackish estuarine zones; they neither store freshwater nor support paddy. ✗

Statement 2: Mangroves have salt-tolerant (halophytic) roots, not salt-sensitive; they do not convert coastal land into freshwater aquaculture zones. ✗

Statement 3: Mangroves dissipate tidal/cyclonic surge energy (bio-shield) and provide fuelwood, honey, fish, and timber for coastal livelihoods. ✓

Only 3 is correct — Option D.

Question 24 of 100

In what way(s) does the Vizhinjam International Seaport represent a structural shift in India's maritime trade and logistics policy?

1. By functioning exclusively as a domestic cargo hub to reduce reliance on coastal shipping and eliminate the need for foreign collaborations.

2. By focusing primarily on passenger cruise tourism and heritage shipping to increase Kerala's profile as a maritime heritage destination.

3. By leveraging its natural deep draft and strategic location to reduce dependence on foreign trans-shipment ports, enhance revenue retention, and reposition India in regional maritime trade.

Select the answer using the code given below:

  1. A1 only
  2. B1 and 2
  3. C2 and 3
  4. D3 only

Correct answer Option D

Explanation

Statement 1: Vizhinjam is designed as an international container transshipment port, not as an exclusively domestic cargo hub. It aims to reduce dependence on foreign transshipment hubs; it does not eliminate all foreign-linked maritime logistics. ✗

Statement 2: It is a deep-water cargo/container transshipment port, not a cruise-tourism or maritime-heritage facility. ✗

Statement 3: Its natural deep draft and location near the main east-west shipping route help India handle larger vessels domestically, reduce reliance on Colombo/Singapore/Salalah, retain transshipment revenue, and improve India's regional maritime position. ✓

Only 3 is correct — Option D.

Question 25 of 100

Identify the river of the Indian sub-continent on the basis of the following information:

1. It has an antecedent drainage system.

2. It flows through three countries.

3. It originates in the Tibetan Plateau and is an important river for irrigation.

4. It does not form distributaries.

Select the answer from the following:

  1. ABrahmaputra
  2. BIndus
  3. CSutlej
  4. DTeesta

Correct answer Option C

Explanation

Apply each clue:

  • Antecedent drainage: Sutlej cuts through the Himalayas (Shipki La gorge) — antecedent. ✓
  • Three countries: China (Tibet) → India → Pakistan. ✓
  • Tibetan Plateau origin + irrigation: Rises at Rakshastal (Tibet); backbone of Bhakra-Nangal irrigation. ✓
  • No distributaries: Sutlej is a tributary of the Indus, joins Chenab — no delta/distributaries. ✓

Why not others:

  • Brahmaputra forms a huge distributary system in Bangladesh. ✗
  • Indus forms a large delta with distributaries in Sindh. ✗
  • Teesta rises in Sikkim (not Tibetan Plateau proper) and flows through only 2 countries. ✗

Hence — Option C (Sutlej).

Question 26 of 100

Which of the following with reference to Indian States is/are $not$ correct?

1. Uttar Pradesh shares its boundary with the highest number of other Indian States.

2. Rajasthan shares the longest international border among all Indian States.

3. Sikkim is the only State that shares its boundary with just one other Indian State.

Select the answer using the code given below:

  1. A1 only
  2. B1 and 2
  3. C2 and 3
  4. D3 only

Correct answer Option C

Explanation

Question asks which statements are not correct.

Statement 1: Uttar Pradesh borders 8 Indian States: Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, Haryana, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand and Bihar. This is the highest among Indian States. Correct (so not in the answer).

Statement 2: The longest international boundary among Indian States is associated with West Bengal: it has about $2217$ km with Bangladesh alone and additional boundaries with Nepal and Bhutan. Rajasthan's international border with Pakistan is shorter. Incorrect ✓

Statement 3: Sikkim borders only West Bengal, but Meghalaya also borders only one Indian State, Assam. Hence Sikkim is not the only such State. Incorrect ✓

Statements 2 and 3 are not correct — Option C.

Question 27 of 100

Which of the following statements with regard to the arrival of Amur Falcons at Doyang Lake in Nagaland each year from Mongolia is/are correct?

1. It showcases how sustained local conservation efforts can contribute to the arrival and protection of international migratory birds.

2. It reflects the global success of advanced tracking technologies that guide migratory birds back to their stopover sites.

3. It confirms that Amur Falcons have adapted to permanent residency in India due to favourable habitat changes.

Select the answer using the code given below:

  1. A1 only
  2. B1 and 2
  3. C2 and 3
  4. D3 only

Correct answer Option A

Explanation

Statement 1: Pangti village + Wokha communities turned from massive trapping (2012) to active protection — Doyang is now hailed as the world's largest Amur Falcon roosting site. ✓

Statement 2: Birds navigate by innate cues (magnetic, celestial), not by human tracking devices. Satellite tags monitor flights; they do not guide birds. ✗

Statement 3: Amur Falcons remain passage migrants — they only halt at Doyang en route to South Africa; they are not permanent residents. ✗

Only 1 — Option A.

Question 28 of 100

Which among the following is/are the objective(s) of the Rainfed Area Development (RAD) initiative under the National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA)?

1. Encouraging monoculture in rainfed areas

2. Increasing rice cultivation in irrigated regions

3. Enhancing productivity and minimising climatic risks through Integrated Farming Systems (IFS)

Select the answer using the code given below:

  1. A1 only
  2. B1 and 2
  3. C2 and 3
  4. D3 only

Correct answer Option D

Explanation

Statement 1: RAD promotes diversified, integrated cropping (crops + livestock + horticulture + agro-forestry) — opposite of monoculture. ✗

Statement 2: RAD targets rainfed areas, not irrigated; promoting rice in irrigated zones is not its objective. ✗

Statement 3: RAD's core objective is to enhance productivity and reduce climatic risk via Integrated Farming Systems (IFS). ✓

Only 3 — Option D.

Question 29 of 100

Which of the following is/are the most significant implication(s) of obtaining Oeko-Tex certification for Eri Silk in the global textile industry?

1. It allows Indian exporters to compete in high-end markets that prioritise chemical-free products.

2. It confirms that Eri Silk meets international safety, environmental, and quality standards, enabling its entry into premium eco-conscious markets.

Select the answer using the code given below:

  1. A1 only
  2. B2 only
  3. CBoth 1 and 2
  4. DNeither 1 nor 2

Correct answer Option C

Explanation

Statement 1: OEKO-TEX STANDARD 100 certifies that textile products have been tested against harmful substances. This helps Indian Eri silk exporters compete in high-end markets that demand chemical-safety assurance. ✓

Statement 2: In the Eri silk market context, the certification strengthens international safety and quality credibility and supports entry into premium eco-conscious markets. However, STANDARD 100 itself is mainly a harmful-substance test; it is not a full life-cycle sustainability or fabric-quality grading standard. ✓

Both statements are correct — Option C.

Question 30 of 100

Ships from which of the following countries have to cross the Strait of Hormuz to reach out to the Indian Ocean?

1. Bahrain

2. Syria

3. Qatar

4. Egypt

Select the answer using the code given below:

  1. A1 and 2
  2. B1 and 3
  3. C2 and 3
  4. D3 and 4

Correct answer Option B

Explanation

The Strait of Hormuz connects the Persian Gulf to the Gulf of Oman / Indian Ocean. Countries inside the Persian Gulf must transit it.

  • Bahrain: island state inside Persian Gulf — must cross Hormuz. ✓
  • Syria: coast on the Mediterranean Sea — has no need for Hormuz. ✗
  • Qatar: peninsula in Persian Gulf — must cross Hormuz. ✓
  • Egypt: coasts on Mediterranean + Red Sea; reaches Indian Ocean via Bab-el-Mandeb, not Hormuz. ✗

Hence 1 and 3 — Option B.

Question 31 of 100

Tungurahua Volcano, which was declared a Global Geopark by UNESCO in 2025, is situated in which one among the following countries?

  1. AEcuador
  2. BPeru
  3. CBolivia
  4. DColombia

Correct answer Option A

Explanation

Tungurahua ("Throat of Fire") is an active stratovolcano in the Cordillera Oriental of the Andes in central Ecuador. UNESCO designated the Tungurahua Volcano Geopark in 2025.

Hence — Option A (Ecuador).

Question 32 of 100

With reference to Madhav National Park, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It was declared a Tiger Reserve in India in 2025.

2. Sakhya Sagar, which is designated as a Ramsar Site, is situated within this National Park.

3. Its area is shared between Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan.

Select the answer using the code given below:

  1. A1 only
  2. B1 and 2
  3. C2 and 3
  4. D3 only

Correct answer Option B

Explanation

Statement 1: Madhav NP (Shivpuri, MP) was officially notified as India's 58th Tiger Reserve in March 2025. ✓

Statement 2: Sakhya Sagar Lake lies within Madhav NP and was designated a Ramsar Site in 2022. ✓

Statement 3: Madhav NP lies entirely within Shivpuri district of Madhya Pradesh — no part in Rajasthan. ✗

Hence 1 and 2 — Option B.

Question 33 of 100

With reference to the climate of Andaman and Nicobar Islands, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. The climate can be defined as a humid, tropical coastal climate.

2. It receives rainfall from both South-west monsoon and North-east monsoon.

3. Maximum precipitation is between December and May.

Select the answer using the code given below:

  1. A1 only
  2. B1 and 2
  3. C2 and 3
  4. D3 only

Correct answer Option B

Explanation

Statement 1: The islands lie near the equator with high humidity and uniform temperatures — classic humid tropical coastal climate. ✓

Statement 2: They receive rain from the SW monsoon (May–Sep) and the NE monsoon (Nov–Dec) as well as cyclones. ✓

Statement 3: Maximum precipitation falls during May–December, not Dec–May; Dec–May (especially Jan–April) is the relatively drier period. ✗

Hence 1 and 2 — Option B.

Question 34 of 100

Which of the following geographical features or phenomena is/are associated with the Peninsular Block of India?

1. Submergence of parts of the western coast due to tectonic activity

2. Presence of residual mountain ranges such as the Veliconda hills and Mahendragiri hills

3. Deep, V-shaped river valleys formed by fast-flowing rivers

Select the answer using the code given below:

  1. A1 only
  2. B1 and 2
  3. C2 and 3
  4. D3 only

Correct answer Option B

Explanation

Statement 1: The western coast shows tectonic subsidence (faulting/submergence) — evident in Kerala's backwaters and ria-like indentations. ✓

Statement 2: Veliconda and Mahendragiri hills are residual ranges of the Eastern Ghats — relics of ancient denudation. ✓

Statement 3: Peninsular rivers are mature, slow-flowing with broad, shallow valleys; V-shaped valleys belong to youthful Himalayan rivers. ✗

Hence 1 and 2 — Option B.

Question 35 of 100

Consider the following statements with reference to the Sagarmala Programme of the Government of India:

I. The Sagarmala Programme seeks to achieve port-led economic growth through cost-effective and sustainable coastal infrastructure.

II. The success of the Sagarmala Programme is reflected in significant growth in coastal and inland waterway shipping, along with improved global port rankings.

III. Sagarmala 2.0 aims to position India as a global maritime innovation hub aligned with Atmanirbhar Bharat and Viksit Bharat 2047 visions.

Which of the following relationships among the above statements is/are correct?

1. Statement II validates the effectiveness of the strategies envisioned in statement I.

2. Statement III extends the objectives of statement I by embedding them into a future-oriented innovation framework.

3. Statement I contradicts statement III by focusing only on traditional infrastructure instead of modern innovation.

Select the answer using the code given below:

  1. A1 only
  2. B1 and 2
  3. C2 and 3
  4. D3 only

Correct answer Option B

Explanation

Statement I: True — Sagarmala's stated aim is port-led, sustainable growth. Statement II: True — coastal/IWT cargo has risen; Indian ports (e.g., Mundra, JNPA) climbed in global rankings. Statement III: True — Sagarmala 2.0 explicitly aligns with Atmanirbhar Bharat & Viksit Bharat 2047.

Relationship 1: II's empirical gains do validate the strategy in I. ✓

Relationship 2: III builds on I by adding an innovation-led layer — a logical extension. ✓

Relationship 3: I never restricts itself to traditional infrastructure alone — it is foundational, not contradictory to innovation in III. ✗

Hence 1 and 2 — Option B.

Question 36 of 100

Consider the following statements about $Rhynchostylis$ $retusa$ (Foxtail orchid):

1. It is an epiphytic orchid.

2. The species is endemic to North-east India.

3. It is the State flower of Arunachal Pradesh and Assam.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. A1 only
  2. B1 and 3
  3. C2 and 3
  4. D3 only

Correct answer Option B

Explanation

Statement 1: *Rhynchostylis retusa* is an epiphytic orchid; it grows on host trees for support without being parasitic. ✓

Statement 2: Its range extends beyond North-east India to other parts of India and tropical Asia, including Sri Lanka and South-east Asia. It is not endemic to North-east India. ✗

Statement 3: It is the State Flower of Assam, where it is known as Kopou Phool, and also of Arunachal Pradesh. ✓

Hence 1 and 3 are correct — Option B.

Question 37 of 100

Which one of the following statements with regard to the Moidams, built by the Tai-Ahom kingdom and inscribed as a World Heritage Site by UNESCO, is/are correct?

1. They acted as army fortresses.

2. They were recreation centres of the Royals and Nobles.

3. They were burial grounds of the Royals and Nobles.

4. They were battle drill centres of the Royals and Nobles.

Select the answer using the code given below:

  1. A1 only
  2. B1 and 3
  3. C3 only
  4. D2 and 4

Correct answer Option C

Explanation

Moidams at Charaideo (Assam) are burial mounds/tumuli of Ahom kings and nobles — inscribed by UNESCO in 2024 as India's 43rd World Heritage Site.

  • 1 — Army fortress: ✗
  • 2 — Recreation centres: ✗
  • 3 — Burial grounds of Royals and Nobles: ✓ (their core function)
  • 4 — Battle drill centres: ✗

Hence only 3 — Option C.

Question 38 of 100

At the United Nations Ocean Conference (UNOC) held in June, 2025 in France, the Food and Agricultural Organization (FAO) of the United Nations demonstrated its leading voice on marine and ocean issues, especially on sustainable fisheries and aquaculture for resilient livelihood and "Blue Transformation".

Which of the following combinations about the "Four Betters" proposed by FAO for "Blue Transformation" is correct?

  1. ABetter production, better nutrition, better environment and better ocean
  2. BBetter production, better nutrition, better environment and better life
  3. CBetter coral reefs, better nutrition, better environment and better life
  4. DBetter estuaries, better nutrition, better environment and better mangrove vegetation

Correct answer Option B

Explanation

FAO's Strategic Framework 2022–31 centres on the "Four Betters":

  • Better Production
  • Better Nutrition
  • Better Environment
  • Better Life — leaving no one behind

Blue Transformation operationalises these for aquatic food systems. Options A, C, D mis-state the fourth pillar.

Hence — Option B.

Question 39 of 100

Which of the following statements with reference to Lake Turkana is/are correct?

1. It is the largest desert lake in the world.

2. The lake is situated in South Sudan along the eastern fringe of the Sahara desert.

3. The lake is listed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site and is also referred to as the 'Jade Sea'.

Select the answer using the code given below:

  1. A1 only
  2. B1 and 3 only
  3. C2 and 3 only
  4. D1, 2 and 3

Correct answer Option B

Explanation

Statement 1: Turkana is the world's largest permanent desert lake and largest alkaline lake. ✓

Statement 2: Lake Turkana lies in northern Kenya (with a tiny part in Ethiopia), within the East African Rift — not in South Sudan or along the Sahara. ✗

Statement 3: Its National Parks are inscribed on UNESCO's World Heritage list; the lake's algae give it a green-blue hue, hence 'Jade Sea'. ✓

Hence 1 and 3 only — Option B.

Question 40 of 100

Which one of the following is the first Plan Vivo certified Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation (REDD+) project in India?

  1. AUttarakhand REDD+ project
  2. BICFRE-ICIMOD Transboundary REDD+ project in North-Eastern Himalayas
  3. CKhasi Hills Community REDD+ project
  4. DSikkim Mamley Kamrang Community REDD+ project

Correct answer Option C

Explanation

The Khasi Hills Community REDD+ Project (Meghalaya), implemented by the Ka Synjuk Ki Hima Arliang Wah Umiam — Mawphlang Welfare Society, is India's first Plan Vivo–certified REDD+ project (certified 2013). It protects ~27,000 ha of community forests across 62 Khasi villages.

The other options are later or different initiatives — not the first Plan Vivo certification.

Hence — Option C.

Question 41 of 100

Which of the following statements with regard to genetic medicine is/are correct?

1. Genetic medicines correct/compensate for the faulty genes responsible for disease.

2. Engineered viruses and lipid nanoparticles are used as carriers of the genetic medicine.

3. Genetic medicines alter the entire DNA sequence.

Select the answer using the code given below:

  1. A1 only
  2. B2 and 3 only
  3. C1 and 2 only
  4. D1, 2 and 3

Correct answer Option C

Explanation

Statement 1: Gene therapy replaces, repairs or compensates faulty genes (e.g., Luxturna for inherited blindness). ✓

Statement 2: Adeno-associated viruses (AAV) and lipid nanoparticles (used in mRNA COVID vaccines) are standard delivery vectors. ✓

Statement 3: Genetic medicines target only specific genes/sequences, not the entire DNA. Editing the whole genome is neither possible nor the goal. ✗

Option C

Question 42 of 100

Which of the following statements with regard to Large Language Models (LLMs) used in machine learning is/are correct?

1. LLMs assign probabilities to the next possible words and then pick the one with the highest probability.

2. LLMs process data through mathematical optimization to minimise prediction errors.

3. LLMs produce unbiased outputs.

Select the answer using the code given below:

  1. A1 only
  2. B1 and 2 only
  3. C2 and 3 only
  4. D1, 2 and 3

Correct answer Option B

Explanation

Statement 1: LLMs compute a probability distribution over possible next tokens. In the simplified exam sense this supports the statement; actual decoding may use greedy choice or sampling from high-probability tokens, but the model is still doing next-token probability prediction. ✓

Statement 2: Training adjusts parameters by mathematical optimisation, commonly gradient descent, to minimise a loss such as cross-entropy. ✓

Statement 3: LLM outputs can reflect biases present in training data and system design; they are not guaranteed to be unbiased. ✗

Option B

Question 43 of 100

Which of the following statements with regard to stealth technology is/are correct?

1. Stealth objects have a very small radar cross-section and are coated with Radar Absorbing Material.

2. Stealth objects can be detected using specific frequencies.

3. Stealth objects are coated with metamaterials to increase the scattering of electromagnetic radiation.

Select the answer using the code given below:

  1. A1 only
  2. B2 and 3 only
  3. C1 and 2 only
  4. D1, 2 and 3

Correct answer Option C

Explanation

Statement 1: Stealth craft (F-117, B-2) use shaping for low RCS and Radar Absorbing Material (RAM) coatings. ✓

Statement 2: Low-frequency VHF/UHF radars can detect stealth aircraft because stealth optimisation works mainly for X-band. ✓

Statement 3: Metamaterials are used to bend/absorb/reduce scattering (cloaking), not increase it — increasing scattering would defeat the purpose. ✗

Option C

Question 44 of 100

Which of the following statements with regard to Black Boxes used in modern aircrafts is/are correct?

1. They carry a beacon emitting red light pulses to facilitate underwater detection.

2. They record both the cockpit voice and flight data.

3. Their memory units are made using either stainless steel or titanium.

Select the answer using the code given below:

  1. A1 only
  2. B2 and 3 only
  3. C1 and 2 only
  4. D1, 2 and 3

Correct answer Option B

Explanation

Statement 1: The Underwater Locator Beacon emits ultrasonic pings (~37.5 kHz), not red light pulses — light doesn't travel far underwater. ✗

Statement 2: A black box comprises the Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) and Flight Data Recorder (FDR). ✓

Statement 3: Crash-survivable memory units are encased in stainless steel or titanium to survive impact, fire and pressure. ✓

Option B

Question 45 of 100

Which of the following statements with regard to Green Hydrogen is/are correct?

1. It is decarbonized hydrogen obtained from natural gas reforming combined with carbon capture and storage (CCS).

2. It is produced using electrolysis of water with electricity generated by renewable energy.

3. National Green Hydrogen Mission of India aims for abatement of nearly 50 MMT of annual greenhouse gas emissions by 2030.

Select the answer using the code given below:

  1. A1 only
  2. B2 and 3 only
  3. C2 only
  4. D1, 2 and 3

Correct answer Option B

Explanation

Statement 1: Hydrogen from natural-gas reforming + CCS is Blue Hydrogen, not Green. Green Hydrogen comes only from renewable-powered electrolysis. ✗

Statement 2: Electrolysis of water using renewable electricity is the definition of Green Hydrogen. ✓

Statement 3: The National Green Hydrogen Mission (2023) targets ~5 MMT production and ~50 MMT GHG abatement annually by 2030. ✓

Option B

Question 46 of 100

Consider the following statements with regard to involvement of private entities in India's space programme:

1. The Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre (IN-SPACe) is an autonomous agency formed to facilitate participation of private entities.

2. Agnikul Cosmos launched the world's first flight using 3D-printed rocket engine.

3. Skyroot Aerospace has developed liquid fuel for GSLV.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. A1 only
  2. B2 and 3 only
  3. C1 and 2 only
  4. D1, 2 and 3

Correct answer Option C

Explanation

Statement 1: IN-SPACe (2020) is an autonomous body under DoS to authorise and promote private participation. ✓

Statement 2: Agnikul's Agnibaan SOrTeD (May 2024) was the world's first flight with a fully 3D-printed, single-piece rocket engine (Agnilet). ✓

Statement 3: Skyroot built Vikram-S (a sub-orbital sounding rocket) using solid fuel, not liquid fuel for GSLV. GSLV's cryogenic stage was developed by ISRO. ✗

Option C

Question 47 of 100

Which of the following statements with regard to drone swarms is/are correct?

1. They use Terahertz band of frequency to communicate with the command centre.

2. Individual drones in the swarm can communicate with other drones in the swarm.

3. GPS Spoofing is a commonly used technique to counter drone swarm attack.

Select the answer using the code given below:

  1. A1 only
  2. B2 and 3 only
  3. C1 and 2 only
  4. D1, 2 and 3

Correct answer Option B

Explanation

Statement 1: Drone swarms typically use UHF/microwave/Wi-Fi mesh links. THz bands suffer atmospheric absorption and are not used for swarm-to-command links. ✗

Statement 2: Mesh inter-drone communication is the defining feature of a swarm — they coordinate autonomously. ✓

Statement 3: GPS spoofing (feeding fake GPS signals) is a widely used counter-drone technique that disorients/diverts the swarm. ✓

Option B

Question 48 of 100

Which of the following statements with regard to GenomeIndia Project is/are correct?

1. It is a part of the Human Genome Project.

2. The project is funded by the Department of Biotechnology (DBT), Government of India.

3. Its primary aim is to build a catalogue of genetic diversity of the Indian population.

Select the answer using the code given below:

  1. A1 only
  2. B2 and 3 only
  3. C1 and 2 only
  4. D1, 2 and 3

Correct answer Option B

Explanation

Statement 1: The Human Genome Project (1990–2003) is an unrelated international effort, completed long before. GenomeIndia (2020) is an independent Indian initiative. ✗

Statement 2: It is funded and steered by the Department of Biotechnology (DBT), Government of India. ✓

Statement 3: Its primary aim is to sequence ~10,000 Indians across diverse groups to build a reference catalogue of genetic variation in the Indian population. ✓

Option B

Question 49 of 100

Which of the following statements with regard to the National Quantum Mission (NQM) is/are correct?

1. It aims at developing intermediate-scale quantum computers with $50-1000$ physical qubits.

2. Its implementation includes setting up of four Thematic Hubs (T-Hubs) in academic and national R&D institutes across India.

Select the answer using the code given below:

  1. A1 only
  2. B2 only
  3. CBoth 1 and 2
  4. DNeither 1 nor 2

Correct answer Option C

Explanation

Statement 1: NQM (approved 2023, ₹6003 cr) targets $50$–$1000$ physical qubit quantum computers across superconducting and photonic platforms in 8 years. ✓

Statement 2: Implementation sets up 4 Thematic Hubs (T-Hubs) — Quantum Computing, Communication, Sensing & Metrology, and Materials & Devices — at top academic/R&D institutes. ✓

Option C

Question 50 of 100

Which of the following statements with regard to India's Deep Ocean Mission is/are correct?

1. It was launched by the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways, Government of India.

2. Matsya-6000 has been designed to carry 3 people for deep sea exploration.

3. Samudrayaan is a project under this mission.

Select the answer using the code given below:

  1. A1 only
  2. B2 and 3 only
  3. C1 and 2 only
  4. D1, 2 and 3

Correct answer Option B

Explanation

Statement 1: Deep Ocean Mission (2021) was launched by the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES), not Ports/Shipping/Waterways. ✗

Statement 2: Matsya-6000 is a manned submersible designed by NIOT to carry 3 humans to 6000 m depth. ✓

Statement 3: Samudrayaan is the manned-submersible component (using Matsya-6000) under the Deep Ocean Mission. ✓

Option B

Question 51 of 100

Mr. X, a senior officer, was overseeing a critical vaccination programme during a pandemic. He found that a private service provider responsible for vaccine distribution was compromising on quality to make profits. Despite immense pressure to manage the issue due to vested interests, he raised his voice based on the principles of public administration which he learnt during various training programmes attended across his career. He reported the issue to the appropriate vigilance authority and halted the contract to ensure citizen welfare.

Which one among the following principles of public administration was most strongly demonstrated by Mr. X's actions?

  1. AEsprit de corps
  2. BEquity
  3. CAccountability
  4. DDelegation

Correct answer Option C

Explanation

Mr. X reports the wrongdoing to the vigilance authority and answers to citizens' welfare rather than vested interests — the essence of Accountability (answerability for actions and outcomes to the public).

  • Esprit de corps = team spirit/unity within an organisation — not the focus here. ✗
  • Equity = fair, impartial treatment — relevant but secondary; the act of *reporting* highlights answerability. ✗
  • Delegation = transfer of authority downward — irrelevant. ✗

Option C

Question 52 of 100

In a multi-ethnic district where both economic competition and historical grievances frequently led to community tensions, a flashpoint has arisen with a Government decision to allocate land for a waste management facility near a tribal hamlet, sparking protests by the tribal community, which claimed that the land was sacred and critical to their cultural identity. At the same time, urban residents and local industries supported the project, citing severe solid waste challenges and health concerns due to lack of a proper disposal site. The conflict has escalated with road blockades, social media campaigns, and allegations of police excesses.

As a responsible Government official, you are tasked with resolving the situation through mediation, ensuring a sustainable outcome that balances environmental needs, tribal rights, and urban public health.

Consider the following statements with reference to the above:

1. A successful conflict resolution process must begin with acknowledging the cultural concerns of the protesting tribal community before discussing technical alternatives.

2. The Government should move ahead with the project without delay to address urban health concerns, which outweigh the sentiments of a small group.

3. Creating a multi-stakeholder dialogue platform — including tribal leaders, environmental experts, and municipal representatives — to build mutual understanding and help de-escalate tensions.

4. Conducting an independent Environmental and Social Impact Assessment (ESIA) and sharing findings transparently with both sides to facilitate evidence-based decision-making.

Which of the statements given above would contribute to the resolution process?

  1. A1, 3 and 4 only
  2. B2, 3 and 4 only
  3. C1 and 2 only
  4. D1, 2, 3 and 4

Correct answer Option A

Explanation

Statement 1: Acknowledging cultural/sacred concerns first builds trust — a prerequisite for mediation in any FPIC framework. ✓

Statement 2: Bulldozing ahead while dismissing a community as a "small group" will deepen the conflict — it violates tribal rights (PESA, FRA) and the very mandate of mediation. ✗

Statement 3: A multi-stakeholder platform creates shared ownership and de-escalates tensions. ✓

Statement 4: An independent ESIA, transparently shared, supplies evidence on which both sides can converge. ✓

Option A

Question 53 of 100

Ms. X is a mid-level civil service official working in the urban development department of a major city. Recently, she was involved in approving a contract for a public infrastructure project — a new community park. During the approval process, she received a piece of confidential information indicating that one of the shortlisted contractors had a history of poor workmanship and allegations of corruption in other cities, though nothing had been legally proven. The Head of the Department, Mr. Y, advised her not to disclose this information to the project committee or the public because it could delay the project and damage the city's reputation. However, Ms. X believed that withholding such information compromised transparency and public trust.

What amongst the following should Ms. X do now?

1. Immediately disclose the information to the project committee and the public

2. Recommend removing the contractor from the shortlist to protect the project's integrity

3. Propose a 'limited disclosure' to an oversight committee, while keeping the information confidential from the public for the time being

Select the answer using the code given below:

  1. A1 and 2 only
  2. B3 only
  3. C2 and 3 only
  4. D1, 2 and 3

Correct answer Option B

Explanation

Action 1: Immediate full public disclosure of unproven allegations is unfair to the contractor (natural justice) and risks defamation — premature. ✗

Action 2: Removing the contractor on the basis of mere allegations bypasses due process and tender rules. ✗

Action 3: A limited disclosure to an oversight committee balances transparency with fairness — the committee can verify, allowing evidence-based decision while protecting reputations until proven. ✓

Option B

Question 54 of 100

'X' was addressing a seminar on the meaning of the term 'law' as provided under Article 13, Part III of the Constitution of India. 'X' explained that the meaning of the term 'law' in the Constitution of India was very comprehensive. It included ordinances, orders and even rules and regulations. 'Y' pointed out that the term 'law' in Article 13 also included custom or usage having in the territory of India the force of law, to which 'X' was not convinced.

Based on the above, select the correct conclusion from the options given below:

  1. A'X' is correct in the interpretation of law, including the view on non-inclusion of custom.
  2. BThe view of 'Y' that 'law' included custom is not correct.
  3. CThe views of both 'X' and 'Y' are correct.
  4. DThe view of only 'Y' is correct.

Correct answer Option C

Explanation

Article 13(3)(a) defines 'law' to include ordinances, orders, bye-laws, rules, regulations, notifications, and also custom or usage having the force of law in India.

  • X's listed inclusions — ordinances, orders, rules and regulations — are correct. ✓
  • Y's addition — custom or usage with the force of law — is also correct. ✓
  • X's personal disagreement with Y is not correct, but among the options Option C best captures that both positive legal propositions are correct.

Option C

Question 55 of 100

Consider the following statements with reference to the Constitution of India:

1. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Constitution of India will be officially called the 'Constitution of India'.

2. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Indian Independence Act, 1947 and the Government of India Act, 1935 stand repealed.

3. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that mentions $26^{th}$ January, 1950 as the date of the commencement of the Constitution of India.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

  1. AAll three statements are correct.
  2. BThere is no correct statement.
  3. CThere are two correct statements that include statement 3.
  4. DThere is only one correct statement.

Correct answer Option B

Explanation

Statement 1: Article 393 says "This Constitution may be called the Constitution of India." So such an article exists. ✗

Statement 2: Article 395 explicitly repeals the Indian Independence Act, 1947 and the Government of India Act, 1935. ✗

Statement 3: Article 394 says the remaining provisions shall come into force on the twenty-sixth day of January, 1950, the date of commencement. ✗

All three claims of "no such article" are false.

Option B

Question 56 of 100

Which of the following statements with regard to the persons with disabilities in India is/are correct?

1. The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, an Act passed by the Parliament of India in 2018, mandates reservation in education and employment, places a legal duty on Governments to ensure accessibility and non-discrimination.

2. The Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan focuses on achieving universal accessibility for Persons with Disabilities across three key domains — built infrastructure, transport systems and information and communication technology.

3. The National Divyangjan Finance and Development Corporation (NDFDC) is a public sector organisation set up by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs as a not-for-profit company to promote entrepreneurship among Persons with Disabilities (PwDs).

Select the answer using the code given below:

  1. A1 and 2
  2. B2 only
  3. C1 and 3
  4. D1 only

Correct answer Option B

Explanation

Statement 1: The RPwD Act was passed in 2016, not 2018. ✗

Statement 2: Sugamya Bharat / Accessible India Campaign (2015) targets exactly these three domains — Built environment, Transport, and ICT. ✓

Statement 3: NDFDC is set up under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment (Dept. of Empowerment of PwDs), not the Ministry of Corporate Affairs. ✗

Option B

Question 57 of 100

Consider the following statements about the provisions pertaining to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes in India:

1. Provisions regarding the administration of the Tribal Areas in the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram are given in the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India.

2. Some tribes of India are entitled to exemption from paying Income Tax on certain incomes.

3. The Constitution of India provides for reservation of seats in Panchayats for women belonging to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

  1. AThere are two correct statements, that include statement 2.
  2. BThere are two correct statements, that are statements 1 and 3.
  3. CThere is only one correct statement.
  4. DAll three statements are correct.

Correct answer Option A

Explanation

Statement 1: Tribal areas of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, Mizoram are administered under the Sixth Schedule, not the Fifth. ✗

Statement 2: Section 10(26) of the Income Tax Act exempts certain members of Scheduled Tribes in specified areas from tax on incomes arising there. ✓

Statement 3: Article 243D(3) mandates reservation of seats in Panchayats for women, including SC/ST women (243D(4) for chairperson posts). ✓

Two correct (statements 2 and 3); set includes statement 2.

Option A

Question 58 of 100

Consider the following statements in respect of questions asked by the Members in the Parliament of India:

1. Unstarred questions are those to which a Member desires an oral answer in the House.

2. Starred questions are those to which a Member desires a written answer.

3. No supplementary question can be asked on an unstarred question.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

  1. AAll the three statements are correct.
  2. BThere are two correct statements, that include statement 2.
  3. CThere is only one correct statement.
  4. DThere is no correct statement.

Correct answer Option C

Explanation

Statement 1: Reversed — Starred questions get an oral answer (with supplementaries), not unstarred. ✗

Statement 2: Reversed — Unstarred questions get a written answer, not starred. ✗

Statement 3: Correct — no supplementary questions are allowed on unstarred questions (since the answer is only laid on the table in writing). ✓

Only statement 3 is correct → exactly one correct statement.

Option C

Question 59 of 100

Consider the following statements about the Committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes of the Parliament of India:

1. Although members of this Committee are elected from both Houses of Parliament, the Chairperson of this Committee is appointed by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.

2. Twenty members are elected by the Rajya Sabha and ten members by the Lok Sabha.

3. No Minister, except for the Union Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment, is eligible to be a member of this Committee.

4. Members are elected for a fixed term of two years from the date they enter their office.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

  1. AThere are four correct statements.
  2. BThere is only one correct statement, that is statement 2.
  3. CThere are two correct statements, that include statement 1.
  4. DThere is no correct statement.

Correct answer Option D

Explanation

Standing facts: 30 members (20 from Lok Sabha + 10 from Rajya Sabha); Chairperson appointed by Speaker of Lok Sabha; no minister can be a member; term is 1 year.

Statement 1: Chairperson is appointed by the Speaker, not by the Rajya Sabha Chairman. ✗

Statement 2: Numbers are reversed — 20 LS + 10 RS, not 20 RS + 10 LS. ✗

Statement 3: No minister can be a member — there is no exception for the Social Justice Minister. ✗

Statement 4: Term is one year, not two years. ✗

Option D

Question 60 of 100

Consider the following statements about Mission Sudarshan Chakra of India:

1. It aims to enhance India's air defence, ballistic missile defence and aerial offensive capabilities.

2. This Mission is being designed to enhance rapid, precise, and powerful defence responses, reinforcing India's strategic autonomy.

3. One of the aims of this Mission is to cover all public places of India by an expanded nationwide security shield by 2035.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. A1, 2 and 3
  2. B1 and 2 only
  3. C2 and 3 only
  4. D1 only

Correct answer Option A

Explanation

Mission Sudarshan Chakra was announced as an expanded national security shield to strengthen India's defence and deterrence capabilities by 2035.

Statement 1: It aims to strengthen air defence, missile-defence style protection and offensive response capability. ✓

Statement 2: It is described as enabling rapid, precise and powerful defence responses, reinforcing India's strategic autonomy through indigenous capability. ✓

Statement 3: PMO/PIB summaries state that all public places will be covered by an expanded nationwide security shield by 2035. The original speech refers to important strategic and civilian places such as hospitals, railways and centres of faith; this supports the statement rather than contradicting it. ✓

Option A

Question 61 of 100

Consider the following statements about river bridges connecting India with neighbouring countries:

1. 'Maitri Setu', built over Feni river, connects Ramgarh in India with Sabroom in Bangladesh.

2. Jhulaghat suspension bridge connects India with Myanmar.

3. Mechi bridge and its approaches connect Panitanki Bypass in India with Kakarvitta in Nepal.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. A1 and 2
  2. B2 and 3
  3. C1 only
  4. D3 only

Correct answer Option D

Explanation

Statement 1: Maitri Setu on the Feni river connects Sabroom (India, Tripura) with Ramgarh (Bangladesh) — the statement reverses the direction. ✗

Statement 2: Jhulaghat suspension bridge over the Mahakali river connects India with Nepal, not Myanmar. ✗

Statement 3: The Mechi bridge over the Mechi river connects Panitanki Bypass (India) with Kakarvitta (Nepal). ✓

— Option D

Question 62 of 100

Which of the following statements about a Zero First Information Report (Zero FIR) under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023 is/are correct?

1. A Zero FIR can be lodged at a police station, even though the place of commission of a cognizable/non-cognizable offence is outside the territorial jurisdiction of that police station.

2. The Officer-in-Charge of the police station where a Zero FIR has been lodged may, with the permission of the competent authority, initiate a preliminary enquiry.

3. Under Zero FIR, it is obligatory for the informant to furnish information electronically.

Select the answer using the code given below:

  1. A1, 2 and 3
  2. B2 and 3 only
  3. C1 only
  4. D2 only

Correct answer Option D

Explanation

Statement 1: Zero FIR is conceptually meant for cognizable offences; clubbing 'non-cognizable' into it makes the statement inaccurate. ✗

Statement 2: Under BNSS 2023 §173(3), the Officer-in-Charge may, with the prior permission of a superior officer (DSP), conduct a preliminary enquiry for offences punishable with 3–7 years. ✓

Statement 3: BNSS §173(1) permits information to be given orally, in writing or electronically — electronic mode is optional, not obligatory. ✗

— Option D

Question 63 of 100

With reference to the organisations under the Government of India, consider the following details:

| Sl. No. | Organisation | Function | Controlling Union Ministry |

|---|---|---|---|

| 1. | Central Economic Intelligence Bureau (CEIB) | To coordinate between various law enforcement agencies | Ministry of Home Affairs |

| 2. | Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO) | To investigate complex corporate frauds | Ministry of Finance |

| 3. | Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) | To preserve values in public life and ensure the health of the national economy | Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pension |

In how many of the above rows are the given details correctly matched?

  1. A1
  2. B2
  3. C3
  4. DNone

Correct answer Option A

Explanation

Row 1: CEIB's function (coordinating economic-intelligence/law-enforcement agencies) is right, but it is under the Ministry of Finance (Dept. of Revenue), not Home Affairs. ✗

Row 2: SFIO investigates complex corporate frauds correctly, but it is under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs, not Finance. ✗

Row 3: CBI's stated mission (preserve values in public life, ensure health of national economy) and its parent ministry DoPT (Ministry of Personnel) are both correct. ✓

Only 1 row is fully matched. — Option A

Question 64 of 100

Which of the following international conventions have $not$ been ratified by India?

1. Employment Policy Convention

2. Abolition of Forced Labour Convention

3. International Convention on the Protection of the Rights of All Migrant Workers and Members of Their Families

4. Geneva Convention Relative to the Protection of Civilian Persons in Time of War

5. Convention on Reduction of Statelessness

Select the answer using the code given below:

  1. A2 and 4
  2. B1 and 2
  3. C3 and 4 only
  4. D3, 4 and 5
Explanation

1. Employment Policy Convention (ILO C122): India ratified it in 1998. Ratified ✓

2. Abolition of Forced Labour Convention (ILO C105): India ratified it in 2000. Ratified ✓

3. Migrant Workers Convention, 1990: India is not a party. Not ratified ✗

4. Geneva Convention IV, 1949: This is the Convention relative to the Protection of Civilian Persons in Time of War. India ratified the 1949 Geneva Conventions; this item is ratified. Ratified ✓

5. Convention on the Reduction of Statelessness, 1961: India is not a party. Not ratified ✗

Therefore, the conventions not ratified by India are 3 and 5 only. No option gives this combination, so the question/options are defective.

Question 65 of 100

Consider the following statements with respect to the AI Impact Summit, 2026 held in New Delhi:

1. The Summit's intellectual framework was based on three foundational Sutras: People, Planning, and Progress.

2. The Preamble of the Summit stresses Democratising AI Resources, which acknowledges the Charter for Democratic Diffusion of AI as a binding framework to support locally relevant innovation and strengthen resilient AI ecosystems while respecting national laws.

3. The New Delhi Declaration on AI Impact was structured around seven Chakras (Pillars), which included Access for Social Empowerment, AI for Science, and Secure and Trusted AI.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. A1, 2 and 3
  2. B1 and 2 only
  3. C2 and 3 only
  4. D3 only

Correct answer Option D

Explanation

Statement 1: The three foundational Sutras were People, Planet, Progress — not 'Planning'. ✗

Statement 2: The Charter for Democratic Diffusion of AI is acknowledged as a voluntary, non-binding framework, not a binding one. ✗

Statement 3: The New Delhi Declaration on AI Impact was structured around seven Chakras (Pillars) including Access for Social Empowerment, AI for Science, and Secure & Trusted AI. ✓

— Option D

Question 66 of 100

Which of the following connectivity projects is/are a part of cooperation between India and the ASEAN member countries?

1. Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project

2. IMT Trilateral Highway

3. Agartala-Akhaura Rail Line

Select the answer using the code given below:

  1. A1 and 2
  2. B2 and 3
  3. C1 and 3
  4. D2 only

Correct answer Option A

Explanation

1. Kaladan Multi-Modal Project: India–Myanmar (Myanmar is an ASEAN member). ✓

2. IMT Trilateral Highway: India–Myanmar–Thailand (both ASEAN). ✓

3. Agartala–Akhaura Rail Line: India–Bangladesh; Bangladesh is not an ASEAN member (it is a SAARC/BIMSTEC member). ✗

— Option A

Question 67 of 100

Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists:

| | List I (Project Supported by India) | | List II (Country) |

|---|---|---|---|

| A. | Mangdechhu Hydroelectric Project | 1. | Maldives |

| B. | Restoration of Stor Palace | 2. | Afghanistan |

| C. | District Hospital at Dickoya | 3. | Bhutan |

| D. | Institute of Security and Law Enforcement Studies | 4. | Sri Lanka |

Code:

| | A | B | C | D |

|---|---|---|---|---|

| (a) | 1 | 4 | 2 | 3 |

| (b) | 3 | 2 | 4 | 1 |

| (c) | 3 | 4 | 2 | 1 |

| (d) | 1 | 2 | 4 | 3 |

  1. AA-1, B-4, C-2, D-3
  2. BA-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
  3. CA-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
  4. DA-1, B-2, C-4, D-3

Correct answer Option B

Explanation
  • A. Mangdechhu Hydroelectric Project → Bhutan (720 MW, on Mangdechhu river). (3)
  • B. Restoration of Stor Palace → Afghanistan (Kabul, India-funded restoration). (2)
  • C. District Hospital at Dickoya → Sri Lanka (Indian Housing Project in plantation areas). (4)
  • D. Institute of Security and Law Enforcement Studies → Maldives (Indian-supported training institute). (1)

Mapping: A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1. — Option B

Question 68 of 100

Which of the following items of defence hardware is/are manufactured in India?

1. Su-30 MKI Fighter Jets

2. T-90 MK-III Tanks

3. Akula Class Submarine

Select the answer using the code given below:

  1. A1 and 2
  2. B1 and 3
  3. C1 only
  4. D2 only

Correct answer Option A

Explanation

1. Su-30 MKI: Licence-manufactured by HAL, Nashik under technology transfer from Russia. ✓

2. T-90 MK-III Tanks: Built at Heavy Vehicles Factory, Avadi (Chennai) under licence; indigenous content is being progressively raised. ✓

3. Akula-class Submarine: Nuclear-powered Russian-built attack submarine; India has only leased units (INS Chakra) — not manufactured here. ✗

— Option A

Question 69 of 100

Consider the following statements about platforms for multilateral co-operation:

1. The 'Colombo Process' is a regional consultative process in which member states take binding decisions by consensus.

2. The 'Abu Dhabi Dialogue' is a voluntary non-binding consultative process among Asian countries of labour origin and destination to facilitate regional cooperation on contractual labour mobility.

3. The 'Global Forum for Migration and Development', created upon the proposal of a former UN Secretary General, is a voluntary forum whose decisions are non-binding in nature.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. A1, 2 and 3
  2. B1 and 3 only
  3. C2 and 3 only
  4. D2 only

Correct answer Option C

Explanation

Statement 1: The Colombo Process is consultative and operates by consensus, but its decisions are non-binding — not binding. ✗

Statement 2: The Abu Dhabi Dialogue (2008) is indeed a voluntary, non-binding consultative process between Asian labour-origin and destination states on contractual labour mobility. ✓

Statement 3: The GFMD was launched in 2007 following UN SG Kofi Annan's proposal at the 2006 High-Level Dialogue; it is voluntary, state-led, with non-binding outcomes. ✓

— Option C

Question 70 of 100

Consider the following UN organisations/agencies:

1. World Food Programme

2. United Nations Children's Fund

3. United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees

4. International Labour Organisation

How many of the above has/have been awarded the Nobel Prize twice?

  1. A1
  2. B2
  3. C3
  4. D4

Correct answer Option A

Explanation
  • WFP: Nobel Peace Prize 2020 — once.
  • UNICEF: Nobel Peace Prize 1965 — once.
  • UNHCR: Nobel Peace Prize 1954 and 1981 — twice. ✓
  • ILO: Nobel Peace Prize 1969 — once.

Only UNHCR has been awarded the Nobel Prize twice. — Option A

Question 71 of 100

Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists:

| | List I (UN Peacekeeping Operation) | | List II (Period of Operation) |

|---|---|---|---|

| A. | UNMIL | 1. | $2007 - 2010$ |

| B. | MINURCAT | 2. | $2002 - 2005$ |

| C. | MINUSTAH | 3. | $2003 - 2018$ |

| D. | UNMISET | 4. | $2004 - 2017$ |

Code:

| | A | B | C | D |

|---|---|---|---|---|

| (a) | 3 | 4 | 1 | 2 |

| (b) | 3 | 1 | 4 | 2 |

| (c) | 2 | 1 | 4 | 3 |

| (d) | 2 | 4 | 1 | 3 |

  1. AA-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
  2. BA-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
  3. CA-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
  4. DA-2, B-4, C-1, D-3

Correct answer Option B

Explanation
  • A. UNMIL (UN Mission in Liberia) → $2003 - 2018$. (3)
  • B. MINURCAT (UN Mission in Central African Republic & Chad) → $2007 - 2010$. (1)
  • C. MINUSTAH (UN Stabilization Mission in Haiti) → $2004 - 2017$. (4)
  • D. UNMISET (UN Mission of Support in East Timor) → $2002 - 2005$. (2)

Mapping: A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2. — Option B

Question 72 of 100

Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists:

| | List I (BIMSTEC Centre/Establishment) | | List II (Location) |

|---|---|---|---|

| A. | BIMSTEC Cultural Industries Observatory | 1. | NOIDA |

| B. | BIMSTEC Energy Centre | 2. | Bengaluru |

| C. | BIMSTEC Centre for Weather and Climate | 3. | Colombo |

| D. | BIMSTEC Technology Transfer Facility | 4. | Thimphu |

Code:

| | A | B | C | D |

|---|---|---|---|---|

| (a) | 3 | 2 | 1 | 4 |

| (b) | 3 | 1 | 2 | 4 |

| (c) | 4 | 2 | 1 | 3 |

| (d) | 4 | 1 | 2 | 3 |

  1. AA-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
  2. BA-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
  3. CA-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
  4. DA-4, B-1, C-2, D-3

Correct answer Option C

Explanation
  • A. BIMSTEC Cultural Industries Observatory → Thimphu (Bhutan). (4)
  • B. BIMSTEC Energy Centre → Bengaluru (India). (2)
  • C. BIMSTEC Centre for Weather & Climate → NOIDA (India). (1)
  • D. BIMSTEC Technology Transfer Facility → Colombo (Sri Lanka). (3)

Mapping: A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3. — Option C

Question 73 of 100

Which one of the following pairs is $not$ correctly matched?

| | (Indian Army Corps) | (Headquarters) |

|---|---|---|

  1. A3 Corps : Dimapur
  2. B4 Corps : Tezpur
  3. C14 Corps : Leh
  4. D33 Corps : Srinagar

Correct answer Option D

Explanation
  • 3 Corps (Spear Corps): HQ Dimapur, Nagaland. ✓
  • 4 Corps (Gajraj Corps): HQ Tezpur, Assam. ✓
  • 14 Corps (Fire & Fury Corps): HQ Leh, Ladakh. ✓
  • 33 Corps (Trishakti Corps): HQ Sukna, West Bengal — not Srinagar (Srinagar is HQ of 15 Corps / Chinar Corps). ✗

— Option D

Question 74 of 100

Which of the following statements with respect to the Revamped Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA) is/are correct?

1. The period of its implementation is $1^{st}$ April, 2021 to $31^{st}$ March, 2026.

2. The key objective of the Revamped RGSA is to develop the governance capabilities of the Panchayati Raj Institutions to deliver on the Sustainable Development Goals.

3. The share of the Central funding for the Revamped RGSA is 100% for all States and Union Territories.

Select the answer using the code given below:

  1. A1 and 2
  2. B2 only
  3. C1 and 3
  4. D2 and 3

Correct answer Option B

Explanation

Statement 1: Revamped RGSA was approved by Cabinet on 13 April 2022; implementation period is 1 April 2022 – 31 March 2026, not 2021. ✗

Statement 2: The key objective is to develop governance capabilities of PRIs to deliver on the SDGs. ✓

Statement 3: Funding pattern is 60:40 for general States, 90:10 for NE/Hill States, and 100% only for UTs without legislature — not 100% for all. ✗

— Option B

Question 75 of 100

Which of the following countries are members of the European Union?

1. Belarus

2. Poland

3. Germany

4. Switzerland

Select the answer using the code given below:

  1. A1, 2 and 4
  2. B1 and 4 only
  3. C2 and 3
  4. D2 and 4 only

Correct answer Option C

Explanation
  • Belarus: Not an EU member (closely aligned with Russia / part of EAEU). ✗
  • Poland: EU member since 2004. ✓
  • Germany: Founding EU member (Treaty of Rome, 1957). ✓
  • Switzerland: Not an EU member (member of EFTA only). ✗

EU members among the list: 2 and 3. — Option C

Question 76 of 100

Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists:

| | List I (INTERPOL Notice) | | List II (Description) |

|---|---|---|---|

| A. | Silver Notice | 1. | To seek information on unidentified bodies |

| B. | Blue Notice | 2. | To collect additional information about a person's identity, location, or activities in relation to a criminal investigation |

| C. | Black Notice | 3. | To provide warning about a person's criminal activities, where the person is considered to be a possible threat to public safety |

| D. | Green Notice | 4. | To identify and trace criminal assets |

Code:

| | A | B | C | D |

|---|---|---|---|---|

| (a) | 3 | 1 | 2 | 4 |

| (b) | 3 | 2 | 1 | 4 |

| (c) | 4 | 2 | 1 | 3 |

| (d) | 4 | 1 | 2 | 3 |

  1. AA-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
  2. BA-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
  3. CA-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
  4. DA-4, B-1, C-2, D-3

Correct answer Option C

Explanation
  • A. Silver Notice: Newest INTERPOL notice (2025) — to identify, trace and obtain information on criminal assets. (4)
  • B. Blue Notice: To collect additional information on a person's identity, location, or activities in a criminal investigation. (2)
  • C. Black Notice: To seek information on unidentified bodies. (1)
  • D. Green Notice: To warn about a person's criminal activities/threat to public safety. (3)

Mapping: A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3. — Option C

Question 77 of 100

Which of the following statements in relation to NIRANTAR (National Institute for Research and Application of Natural Resources to Transform, Adapt and Build Resilience), a platform of institutions under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, is/are correct?

1. Ecosystem Survey and Analysis is a vertical under this platform, the lead institute of which is Botanical Survey of India, Kolkata.

2. Research and Management of Ecosystem Service is a vertical under this platform, the lead institute of which is Central Zoo Authority, New Delhi.

3. Capacity Development Support is a vertical under this platform, the lead institute of which is Indian Institute of Forest Management, Bhopal.

Select the answer using the code given below:

  1. A1, 2 and 3
  2. B1 and 3 only
  3. C2 only
  4. D3 only

Correct answer Option B

Explanation

Statement 1: Ecosystem Survey & Analysis vertical → lead is Botanical Survey of India (BSI), Kolkata (along with ZSI as co-lead for fauna). ✓

Statement 2: Research & Management of Ecosystem Service vertical → lead is the Indian Council of Forestry Research & Education (ICFRE), Dehradun — not the Central Zoo Authority. ✗

Statement 3: Capacity Development Support vertical → lead is Indian Institute of Forest Management (IIFM), Bhopal. ✓

— Option B

Question 78 of 100

The Chancellor of the Federal Republic of Germany visited India in January, 2026. Which of the following is/are $not$ correct in terms of outcomes of this visit?

1. Signing of a Memorandum of Understanding between the All India Institute of Ayurveda and the University of Hamburg

2. Signing of a Memorandum of Understanding on Youth Hockey Development between Hockey India and the German Hockey Federation

3. Establishment of a bilateral dialogue mechanism on the Indo-Pacific

4. Opening of an Honorary Consul of Germany in Lucknow

Select the answer using the code given below:

  1. A2 and 3
  2. B1 and 4
  3. C3 and 4
  4. D1 only

Correct answer Option B

Explanation

Outcomes of Chancellor Friedrich Merz's January 2026 India visit:

1. The traditional-medicine MoU was with Charité University, Germany, not the University of Hamburg. Not correct ✗

2. The MoU on Youth Hockey Development between Hockey India and the German Hockey Federation was an outcome of the visit. Correct ✓

3. A bilateral dialogue mechanism on the Indo-Pacific was established. Correct ✓

4. The Honorary Consul of Germany was opened/announced in Ahmedabad, not Lucknow. Not correct ✗

Not-correct outcomes: 1 and 4. — Option B

Question 79 of 100

Which of the following statements about DHRUV64 is/are correct?

1. It is the third chip fabricated under the DIR-V Programme with an overall aim to enable the creation of microprocessors for India.

2. It is India's first homegrown $1.0$ GHz, 64-bit dual-core microprocessor.

Select the answer using the code given below:

  1. A1 only
  2. B2 only
  3. CBoth 1 and 2
  4. DNeither 1 nor 2

Correct answer Option C

Explanation

Statement 1: DHRUV64 is the third chip fabricated under the DIR-V (Digital India RISC-V) Programme — after VEGA series and earlier silicon — with the goal of indigenising microprocessor design and creation for India. ✓

Statement 2: DHRUV64 is India's first home-grown $1.0$ GHz, 64-bit dual-core microprocessor, developed under MeitY's RISC-V ecosystem push. ✓

— Option C

Question 80 of 100

The Bureau of Indian Standard (BIS) recently introduced a national standard to test and assess bomb disposal system. Which of the following statements with regard to this system is/are correct?

1. The new standard is known as IS $19445:2025$.

2. It will improve interoperability of equipment across agencies.

3. It was developed by TBRL, DRDO in collaboration with the $30^{th}$ Central Scientific Research Institute, Russia.

Select the answer using the code given below:

  1. A1, 2 and 3
  2. B2 and 3 only
  3. C1 and 2 only
  4. D1 only

Correct answer Option C

Explanation

Statement 1: The new BIS standard for testing/assessing bomb-disposal systems is designated IS $19445:2025$. ✓

Statement 2: By standardising performance and test parameters, it improves interoperability of equipment across agencies (NSG, CISF, state police, armed forces). ✓

Statement 3: It was developed indigenously by TBRL, DRDO (Terminal Ballistics Research Laboratory, Chandigarh); there was no collaboration with Russia's 30th Central Scientific Research Institute. ✗

— Option C

Question 81 of 100

'X', born in the UK, was conferred the Nobel Prize in 2025. He was a professor in an American university when this prize was announced. Identify 'X':

  1. AMichel H. Devoret
  2. BRichard Robson
  3. CJohn Clarke
  4. DJoel Mokyr

Correct answer Option C

Explanation

2025 Nobel Prize in Physics was awarded jointly to John Clarke, Michel H. Devoret and John M. Martinis for the discovery of macroscopic quantum mechanical tunnelling in a Josephson junction.

  • John Clarke: born in Cambridge, UK (1942); professor at UC Berkeley, USA ✓
  • Michel H. Devoret: born in Paris, France ✗ (not UK)
  • Richard Robson: Australian chemist, 2025 Nobel in Chemistry (MOFs) but born in UK and based in Melbourne, not the US ✗
  • Joel Mokyr: 2025 Nobel in Economics; born in the Netherlands, professor at Northwestern, USA ✗

Only Clarke satisfies both conditions — UK-born + American university professor.

Option C

Question 82 of 100

Which of the following statements with regard to the Grand Slam Tennis Tournaments is/are correct?

1. The tournaments have a shared governance structure establishing the partnership among the four Grand Slam tournaments.

2. They are open for entry to all internationally ranked tennis players above the age of 14.

3. There is a limitation on the number of 'Wild Cards' a player may receive to compete in a Grand Slam Tournament.

Select the answer using the code given below:

  1. A1 and 2 only
  2. B2 and 3 only
  3. C1 only
  4. D1, 2 and 3

Correct answer Option A

Explanation

Statement 1: The Grand Slam Board provides a shared governance framework for the Australian Open, Roland-Garros, Wimbledon and the US Open. ✓

Statement 2: The events are open for entry to internationally ranked tennis players above the prescribed minimum age of 14, subject to the Grand Slam entry rules. ✓

Statement 3: The Rule Book does not place a limitation on the number of Wild Cards a player may receive to compete in Grand Slam tournaments. ✗

Correct: 1 and 2 only.

Option A

Question 83 of 100

Which one of the following pairs of semiconductor plants in India and their locations is $not$ correctly matched?

  1. ACG Power and Industrial Solutions Pvt. Ltd. in partnership with Renesas Electronics and STARS Microelectronics : Gujarat
  2. BTata Semiconductor Assembly and Test Pvt. Ltd. : Assam
  3. CHCL-Foxconn Joint Venture India Chip Ltd. : Madhya Pradesh
  4. DSicSem Pvt. Ltd. : Odisha

Correct answer Option C

Explanation

Approved semiconductor units under ISM:

  • CG Power + Renesas + STARS OSAT plant: Sanand, Gujarat ✓
  • Tata Semiconductor Assembly and Test (TSAT): Morigaon, Assam ✓
  • HCL–Foxconn JV (India Chip Ltd.): Jewar, Uttar Pradesh — NOT Madhya Pradesh ✗
  • SicSem Pvt. Ltd. (compound semiconductor unit): Odisha ✓

The HCL–Foxconn unit is in UP, so option C is the wrongly matched pair.

Option C

Question 84 of 100

Which of the following statements with regard to India's indigenous new high resolution weather model, the 'Bharat Forecast System,' is/are correct?

1. Its objective is to generate forecasts at the Panchayats cluster level.

2. It was developed by IIT Delhi.

Select the answer using the code given below:

  1. A1 only
  2. B2 only
  3. CBoth 1 and 2
  4. DNeither 1 nor 2

Correct answer Option A

Explanation

Bharat Forecast System (BFS) launched May 2025 at $6$ km resolution.

Statement 1: BFS aims to provide weather forecasts at panchayat cluster (block/village) level, enabling hyper-local advisories for farmers. ✓

Statement 2: It was developed by the Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM), Pune under MoES — NOT IIT Delhi. ✗

Option A

Question 85 of 100

Consider the following statements with regard to the film 'Boong':

1. The film has recently won the British Academy of Film and Television Arts (BAFTA) Award in the Children's and Family Film category.

2. The film is directed by Lakshmipriya Devi.

3. This is the first Indian film to win a BAFTA award in the Children's and Family Film category.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. A1, 2 and 3
  2. B2 and 3 only
  3. C1 and 2 only
  4. D3 only

Correct answer Option A

Explanation

'Boong' is a Manipuri-language film.

Statement 1: It won the BAFTA Children's and Family Film Award (2026). ✓

Statement 2: Directed by Lakshmipriya Devi, her debut feature. ✓

Statement 3: It is the first Indian film to win a BAFTA in the Children's and Family Film category. ✓

All three statements are correct.

Option A

Question 86 of 100

Which of the following statements regarding the features of blockchain technology are correct?

1. Records stored in the database may be made visible to relevant stakeholders without risk of alteration.

2. Copies of the entire database are stored on multiple computers on a network, syncing within seconds.

3. Consortium blockchain is a blend of public and private blockchains allowing selective data access.

4. Mathematical algorithms make it impossible to change or delete any data once recorded and accepted.

Select the answer using the code given below:

  1. A1 and 3
  2. B2 and 4 only
  3. C1, 2 and 4
  4. D1 and 4 only

Correct answer Option C

Explanation

Statement 1: Cryptographic hashing ensures records are visible (read-access) without tampering risk. ✓

Statement 2: Blockchain is a distributed ledger — full copies on many nodes, syncing in seconds. ✓

Statement 3: Consortium blockchain is governed by a group of organisations — described as semi-decentralised, not as a 'blend of public and private'. The standard hybrid blockchain is the one that blends the two; consortium is governed by multiple known parties. ✗

Statement 4: Cryptographic hash + consensus make recorded data effectively immutable. ✓

Correct: 1, 2 and 4.

Option C

Question 87 of 100

An e-commerce revenue model where the seller has control over pricing but doesn't keep products in stock and instead transfers customer orders and shipment details to a third-party supplier, who then ships the goods directly to the customer, is called:

  1. ADropshipping Model
  2. BAffiliate Revenue Model
  3. CTransaction Fee Revenue Model
  4. DAgency Revenue Model

Correct answer Option A

Explanation

Dropshipping — seller lists/prices the product but does NOT hold inventory; orders are forwarded to a third-party supplier who ships to the customer directly. Matches the description exactly.

  • Affiliate: earn commission for referring buyers — no own pricing.
  • Transaction Fee: marketplace earns a cut per transaction — pricing by sellers, not by 'the seller in question'.
  • Agency: agent acts on behalf of principal — different ownership of inventory rights.

Option A

Question 88 of 100

Which one of the following correctly represents the three key sub-indices of the Financial Inclusion Index (FI-Index) of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)?

  1. ACredit access, Insurance depth, and Pension coverage
  2. BBanking access, GDP contribution, and Financial literacy
  3. CAccess, Usage, and Quality
  4. DAccess, Affordability, and Transparency

Correct answer Option C

Explanation

RBI's FI-Index (first published 2021) is constructed from three sub-indices with weights:

  • Access — 35%
  • Usage — 45%
  • Quality — 20%

Each is composed of multiple parameters (banking, insurance, pension, postal, etc.). Other options invent dimensions not used by RBI.

Option C

Question 89 of 100

Which one of the following best describes the key objective of India's 'Open Network for Digital Commerce' (ONDC) initiative?

  1. ATo allow government control over all digital commerce transactions
  2. BTo replace private e-commerce players
  3. CTo break the dominance of large e-commerce platforms by enabling interoperability across networks
  4. DTo mandate UPI-based payments for all online transactions

Correct answer Option C

Explanation

ONDC (DPIIT-promoted, run as a Section 8 company) is a protocol-based open network that lets buyer apps and seller apps from different platforms transact, breaking the closed-platform model of Amazon/Flipkart.

  • A: ONDC is not a government control mechanism — open standards, not state control. ✗
  • B: It does not replace private players; existing players can plug in. ✗
  • C: Core aim is interoperability to democratise e-commerce. ✓
  • D: ONDC is payment-agnostic — does not mandate UPI. ✗

Option C

Question 90 of 100

Which one of the following statements about Unified Payments Interface (UPI) and Central Bank Digital Currency (Digital Rupee) is $not$ correct?

  1. AUPI is a real-time payment system but Digital Rupee is akin to sovereign paper currency.
  2. BIn case of UPI, settlement for end users happens instantly as the money gets immediately debited or credited but in case of Digital Rupee, there is no settlement as the wallet balance gets transferred to another wallet.
  3. CUPI transactions are recorded by banks and reflected in bank statements but in case of Digital Rupee, no data is captured in bank statements as transactions are from one wallet to another.
  4. DIn both the cases (UPI and Digital Rupee), the liability lies with the users and their respective banks.

Correct answer Option D

Explanation
  • A: UPI is a real-time payment system. e₹ (Digital Rupee) is CBDC, comparable to sovereign paper currency. ✓ correct
  • B: In UPI, the end user's bank account is debited/credited instantly. In e₹, value moves wallet-to-wallet like digital cash, so the user-level transfer does not require a separate bank-account settlement. ✓ correct
  • C: UPI appears in bank-account records. e₹ wallet transfers are wallet transactions, not ordinary bank-account entries. ✓ correct
  • D: In UPI, the money is a commercial-bank deposit. In Digital Rupee, the liability lies with the RBI, because it is central-bank issued currency. It is not a liability of the user or the user's bank. ✗ incorrect

Question asks which is NOT correct → D.

Option D

Question 91 of 100

Which of the following statements about Real-World Assets (RWA) Tokenization are correct?

1. Tokenization is the process of turning real world assets into digital tokens using blockchain technology.

2. Tokenization of real world assets offers $24 \times 7$ access, promoting financial inclusion.

3. Tokenization of real world assets will allow the access to high growth investment opportunities for individuals in India.

Select the answer using the code given below:

  1. A1, 2 and 3
  2. B2 and 3 only
  3. C1 and 2 only
  4. D1 and 3 only

Correct answer Option A

Explanation

Statement 1: Definition is correct — RWA tokenization converts physical/financial assets (real estate, gold, bonds) into blockchain-based digital tokens. ✓

Statement 2: Blockchains run continuously, enabling $24\times7$ trading/settlement and fractional ownership → boosts financial inclusion. ✓

Statement 3: Fractionalisation lets retail investors in India access otherwise high-ticket assets (commercial real estate, private credit). ✓

All three are correct.

Option A

Question 92 of 100

A bond whose proceeds are used only to finance or refinance a combination of both environmental and social projects is called:

  1. AGreen Bond
  2. BSocial Bond
  3. CSustainability Bond
  4. DSovereign Bond

Correct answer Option C

Explanation

Per ICMA Sustainability Bond Guidelines:

  • Green Bond: proceeds for environmental projects only.
  • Social Bond: proceeds for social projects only.
  • Sustainability Bond: proceeds for a combination of green + social projects. ✓
  • Sovereign Bond: issued by a national government — refers to issuer, not use-of-proceeds.

Option C

Question 93 of 100

Which of the following statements about M1xchange's role in Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) financing is/are correct?

1. M1xchange provides collateral based loans to MSMEs.

2. M1xchange facilitates discounting of invoices and Bills of Exchange for MSMEs.

3. M1xchange functions as a credit rating agency for MSMEs.

Select the answer using the code given below:

  1. A1, 2 and 3
  2. B2 only
  3. C2 and 3 only
  4. D1 only

Correct answer Option B

Explanation

M1xchange is an RBI-licensed TReDS (Trade Receivables Discounting System) platform.

Statement 1: It does NOT extend collateral-based loans; it is a receivables-discounting marketplace. ✗

Statement 2: It facilitates discounting of MSME invoices/bills of exchange by financiers — providing working capital quickly. ✓

Statement 3: It is not a credit rating agency (those are SEBI-registered, e.g., CRISIL, ICRA). ✗

Only 2.

Option B

Question 94 of 100

Which one of the following best describes the 'Crowding Out Effect' in the context of fiscal policy?

  1. AA situation where private investment increases due to increased Government spending
  2. BA situation where Government borrowing leads to higher interest rates, which reduces private investment
  3. CA situation where an increase in taxes leads to increased private sector investment
  4. DA situation where Government spending has no impact on aggregate demand

Correct answer Option B

Explanation

Crowding-out effect — when expansionary fiscal policy financed by government borrowing raises demand for loanable funds → interest rates rise → private investment falls.

  • A: That is the 'crowding-in' effect, not crowding-out. ✗
  • B: Classic textbook definition. ✓
  • C: Tax hike typically reduces, not increases, private investment. ✗
  • D: Contradicts Keynesian multiplier; unrelated to crowding-out. ✗

Option B

Question 95 of 100

Which of the following statements about Rare Earth Elements (REEs) and Critical Minerals is/are correct?

1. Modern technological innovations including Artificial Intelligence, robotics and space exploration extensively utilise Rare Earth Elements (REEs).

2. China has the highest share in mining of REEs followed by India.

3. The Government of India launched the National Critical Mineral Mission (NCMM) in 2025 to establish a robust framework for self-reliance in the critical mineral sector.

4. Rare Earth Elements are a set of 13 metallic elements.

Select the answer using the code given below:

  1. A1 and 3 only
  2. B3 only
  3. C1, 3 and 4
  4. D1, 2 and 4

Correct answer Option A

Explanation

Statement 1: REEs such as neodymium and dysprosium are used in high-technology applications, including magnets and components relevant to AI hardware, robotics and space systems. ✓

Statement 2: China has the largest share in REE mining, but India is not next. Current global production data place countries such as the USA, Australia and Myanmar among the next major producers. ✗

Statement 3: The Union Cabinet approved the launch of the National Critical Mineral Mission (NCMM) in January 2025, with ₹16,300 crore expenditure and expected PSU investment support. ✓

Statement 4: REEs are a set of 17 elements: 15 lanthanides plus scandium and yttrium, not 13. ✗

Correct: 1 and 3 only.

Option A

Question 96 of 100

Which of the following statements about insurance in aviation sector is/are correct?

1. 'Aviation Hull Insurance' covers the physical aircraft, including the body, engine, and on-board equipment.

2. Under the Montreal Convention, adopted in 1999 by over 130 countries, including India, airlines are strictly liable to pay compensation to the family/nominee of every deceased passenger without requiring the family to prove fault.

Select the answer using the code given below:

  1. A1 only
  2. B2 only
  3. CBoth 1 and 2
  4. DNeither 1 nor 2

Correct answer Option C

Explanation

Statement 1: Aviation Hull Insurance covers physical loss/damage to the aircraft itself — fuselage, engines, on-board equipment. ✓

Statement 2: Montreal Convention 1999 (in force 2003; India ratified 2009) imposes strict (no-fault) liability up to a defined SDR limit per passenger death/injury — families don't need to prove airline negligence. Beyond the cap, liability is presumed unless airline disproves fault. ✓

Both correct.

Option C

Question 97 of 100

Which of the following statements about Crowdfunding is/are correct?

1. Crowdfunding is solicitation of funds (small amount) from multiple investors through a web-based platform or social networking site for a specific project.

2. Small and Medium Enterprises (SMEs) are able to raise funds at lower cost of capital without undergoing rigorous procedures.

Select the answer using the code given below:

  1. A1 only
  2. B2 only
  3. CBoth 1 and 2
  4. DNeither 1 nor 2

Correct answer Option C

Explanation

Statement 1: SEBI's definition of crowdfunding — solicitation of small contributions from many people via online platforms for a specific project. ✓

Statement 2: Crowdfunding lets SMEs bypass heavy IPO/bank-loan documentation and tap retail capital at lower cost — a key reason SEBI/MSME ministry have been exploring frameworks. ✓

Both correct.

Option C

Question 98 of 100

With reference to different Committees in India, consider the following details:

| Sl. No. | Committee | Objective | Organization under which it was formed |

|---|---|---|---|

| 1. | R.N. Malhotra Committee | Comprehensive reforms of Insurance sector in India | Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India |

| 2. | L.C. Gupta Committee | Preparing a roadmap for the introduction of derivatives trading in India | Securities and Exchange Board of India |

| 3. | Urjit R. Patel Committee | Preparing a roadmap for reforming bank lending to the Housing sector | Reserve Bank of India |

| 4. | Y.H. Malegam Committee | Preparing a roadmap for reforms in Microfinance sector in India | Reserve Bank of India |

In which of the above rows are all the details correctly matched?

  1. A2 only
  2. B2 and 3
  3. C1, 3 and 4
  4. D2 and 4

Correct answer Option D

Explanation
  • Row 1 — Malhotra Committee: aim correct, but it was constituted by the Government of India (MoF) in 1993; IRDAI itself was created on its recommendation in 1999. Organisation column wrong. ✗
  • Row 2 — L.C. Gupta Committee (1996): formed by SEBI for derivatives roadmap. ✓
  • Row 3 — Urjit Patel Committee (2014): was on revising and strengthening the Monetary Policy Framework, NOT housing. ✗
  • Row 4 — Y.H. Malegam Committee (2010-11): constituted by RBI to study microfinance issues post AP crisis. ✓

Fully correct rows: 2 and 4.

Option D

Question 99 of 100

Consider the following statements about the Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) in India:

1. NBFCs cannot accept demand deposits.

2. All the NBFCs operating in India have to be registered with the RBI.

3. NBFCs form part of the payment and settlement system and can issue cheque drawn on itself.

4. Deposit insurance facility of Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC) is not available to the depositors of deposit taking NBFCs.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. A1 and 4
  2. B1, 2 and 3
  3. C4 only
  4. D2, 3 and 4

Correct answer Option A

Explanation

Standard RBI FAQ on NBFCs (key difference from banks):

Statement 1: NBFCs cannot accept demand deposits. ✓

Statement 2: Not all — several NBFC categories are exempt from RBI registration as they are regulated by other regulators (e.g., Insurance Cos. by IRDAI, Housing Finance Cos. earlier under NHB, Merchant Banks/Stock Brokers under SEBI, Nidhi Cos. under MCA, Chit Funds under State Govts.). ✗

Statement 3: NBFCs are NOT part of the payment & settlement system and cannot issue cheques drawn on themselves. ✗

Statement 4: DICGC cover is not available to depositors of deposit-taking NBFCs. ✓

Correct: 1 and 4.

Option A

Question 100 of 100

Consider the following statements about Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI):

1. MPI is calculated using Alkire-Foster methodology.

2. MPI calculated by NITI Aayog has a total of twelve indicators.

3. Maternal Health and Bank Account are common indicators in the MPI of NITI Aayog and MPI of United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. A1 and 2 only
  2. B1, 2 and 3
  3. C1 and 3 only
  4. D2 only

Correct answer Option A

Explanation

Statement 1: Both UNDP global MPI and NITI Aayog's National MPI use the Alkire–Foster (AF) method. ✓

Statement 2: NITI Aayog's National MPI has 3 dimensions and 12 indicators (10 of UNDP + 2 India-specific: Maternal Health and Bank Account). ✓

Statement 3: Maternal Health and Bank Account are the two India-specific additions, NOT common with UNDP MPI. UNDP MPI has only 10 indicators and excludes these two. ✗

Correct: 1 and 2 only.

Option A

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