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UPSC Prelims 2024 CSAT (Paper II · Set A)

All 80 questions of UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2024 CSAT (Paper II · Set A) with the official answer key and detailed explanations, in English.

  • 80 questions
  • 120 minutes
  • Paper II · Set A
  • English
Directions · Questions 1–2Answer the items below based solely on this passage.

According to the Food and Agriculture Organization, one-third of food produced for human consumption is lost or wasted globally. Food is lost or wasted throughout the supply chain, from initial agricultural production to final household consumption. The increasing wastage also results in land degradation by about 45%, mainly due to deforestation, unsustainable agricultural practices, and excessive groundwater extraction. The energy spent over wasted food results in about $3.5$ billion tonnes of carbon dioxide production every year. Decay also leads to harmful emissions of other gases in the atmosphere. Addressing the loss and wastage of food in all forms is critical to complete the cycle of food sufficiency and food sustainability.

Question 1 of 80

Comprehension

Which of the following statements best reflect the most logical and rational inferences that can be made from the passage?

1. The current methods of food distribution are solely responsible for the loss and wastage of food.

2. Land productivity is adversely affected by the prevailing trend of food loss and wastage.

3. Reduction in the loss and wastage of food results in lesser carbon footprint.

4. Post-harvest technologies to prevent or reduce the loss and wastage of food are not available.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. A1, 2 and 3
  2. B2 and 3 only
  3. C1, 3 and 4
  4. D1, 2 and 4

Correct answer Option B

Explanation

The passage lets us test each statement.

Statement 1: claims distribution methods are *solely* responsible. The passage says food is lost "throughout the supply chain, from initial agricultural production to final household consumption" — many stages, not distribution alone. Wrong (too absolute).

Statement 2: wastage causes "land degradation by about 45%" via deforestation and unsustainable practices; degraded land lowers productivity. Supported.

Statement 3: "energy spent over wasted food results in about $3.5$ billion tonnes of carbon dioxide" — cutting wastage cuts this footprint. Supported.

Statement 4: nothing says post-harvest technologies are unavailable. Not supported.

Only 2 and 3 are valid.

Option B

Question 2 of 80

Comprehension

Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:

1. The food distribution mechanism needs to be reimagined and made effective to reduce the loss and wastage of food.

2. Ensuring the reduction of wastage and loss of food is a social and moral responsibility of all citizens.

Which of the assumptions given above is/are valid?

  1. A1 only
  2. B2 only
  3. CBoth 1 and 2
  4. DNeither 1 nor 2

Correct answer Option A

Explanation

An assumption is something taken for granted that underlies the passage.

Assumption 1: The passage says food is lost across the whole supply chain and that "addressing the loss and wastage of food in all forms is critical." This presupposes the distribution/handling mechanism must be improved. Valid.

Assumption 2: The passage never speaks of a "social and moral responsibility of all citizens"; it discusses the FAO, land, energy and gases only. Introducing citizens' moral duty is outside the passage. Invalid.

Option A

Directions · Questions 3–4Answer the items below based solely on this passage.

As inflation rises, even governments previously committed to budget discipline are spending freely to help households. Higher interest rates announced by central banks are supposed to help produce modest fiscal austerity, because to maintain stable debts while paying more to borrow, governments must cut spending or raise taxes. Without the fiscal backup, monetary policy eventually loses traction. Higher interest rates become inflationary, not disinflationary, because they simply lead governments to borrow more to pay rising debt-service costs. The risk of monetary unmooring is greater when public debt rises, because interest rates become more important to budget deficits.

Question 3 of 80

Comprehension

Which of the following statements best reflects/reflect the most logical and rational inference/inferences that can be made from the passage?

1. Central banks cannot bring down inflation without budgetary backing.

2. The effects of monetary policy depend on the fiscal policies pursued by the government.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. A1 only
  2. B2 only
  3. CBoth 1 and 2
  4. DNeither 1 nor 2

Correct answer Option C

Explanation

Statement 1: "Without the fiscal backup, monetary policy eventually loses traction" and higher rates become inflationary — i.e. central banks cannot curb inflation without budgetary backing. Supported.

Statement 2: The whole passage argues rate hikes work only if governments provide fiscal austerity; so monetary policy's effect depends on fiscal policy. Supported.

Both are logical inferences.

Option C

Question 4 of 80

Comprehension

Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:

1. Fiscal policies of governments are solely responsible for higher prices.

2. Higher prices do not affect the long-term government bonds.

Which of the assumptions given above is/are valid?

  1. A1 only
  2. B2 only
  3. CBoth 1 and 2
  4. DNeither 1 nor 2

Correct answer Option D

Explanation

Assumption 1: claims fiscal policies are *solely* responsible for higher prices. The passage treats inflation as a given and discusses how monetary and fiscal policy interact — it never says fiscal policy alone causes inflation. Invalid (too absolute).

Assumption 2: claims higher prices do not affect long-term government bonds. The passage says rising rates raise debt-service costs and force more borrowing — it neither states nor assumes bonds are unaffected. Invalid.

Neither assumption holds.

Option D

Question 5 of 80

What is the least possible number of cuts required to cut a cube into 64 identical pieces?

  1. A8
  2. B9
  3. C12
  4. D16

Correct answer Option B

Explanation

Interpretation: Under the intended convention, the pieces are not rearranged or stacked between cuts, and the target pieces are the $4\times4\times4$ smaller cubes. Without this convention, the wording is ambiguous.

$64=4^3$, so each edge must be divided into four equal parts.

  • Along one direction, four equal parts require three parallel cuts.
  • The same is required in each of the three mutually perpendicular directions.
  • Hence the minimum is $3+3+3=9$ cuts.

With only eight cuts, the best allocation is $3,3,2$ cuts across the three directions. This gives $4\times4\times3=48$ pieces, not $64$ ✗

Nine cuts give $4\times4\times4=64$ identical cubes ✓

Option B

Question 6 of 80

In the expression $5 * 4 * 3 * 2 * 1$, $*$ is chosen from $+, -, \times$ each at most two times. What is the smallest non-negative value of the expression?

  1. A3
  2. B2
  3. C1
  4. D0

Correct answer Option D

Explanation

We fill four operators in $5*4*3*2*1$ using $+,-,\times$, each at most twice, and want the smallest value $\ge 0$.

Try to hit $0$ (remember $\times$ acts first):

  • $5 - 4 - 3 + 2 \times 1$
  • $2 \times 1 = 2$
  • $5 - 4 - 3 + 2 = 0$ ✓

Operators used: $-$ twice, $+$ once, $\times$ once — all within the "at most two" limit.

Value $0$ is non-negative and cannot be beaten.

Option D

Question 7 of 80

A certain number of men can complete a piece of work in $6k$ days, where $k$ is a natural number. By what percent should the number of men be increased so that the work can be completed in $5k$ days?

  1. A10%
  2. B$(50/3)\%$
  3. C20%
  4. D25%

Correct answer Option C

Explanation

Men $\times$ days $=$ constant work.

  • Let men $= M$ for $6k$ days.
  • New men $M'$ for $5k$ days: $M \times 6k = M' \times 5k$
  • $M' = \frac{6}{5}M = 1.2M$

Increase $= 0.2M$, i.e. $20\%$. Note $k$ cancels out.

Option C

Question 8 of 80

$X$, $Y$ and $Z$ can complete a piece of work individually in 6 hours, 8 hours and 8 hours respectively. However, only one person at a time can work in each hour and nobody can work for two consecutive hours. All are engaged to finish the work. What is the minimum amount of time that they will take to finish the work?

  1. A6 hours 15 minutes
  2. B6 hours 30 minutes
  3. C6 hours 45 minutes
  4. D7 hours

Correct answer Option C

Explanation

Rates per hour are $X=\frac{1}{6}$ and $Y=Z=\frac{1}{8}$. Since nobody may work in two consecutive hours, place the faster worker $X$ in alternate hours.

Use the six-hour schedule $X,Y,X,Z,X,Y$:

  • Work by $X$ is $3\times\frac{1}{6}=\frac{1}{2}$.
  • Work by $Y$ and $Z$ is $3\times\frac{1}{8}=\frac{3}{8}$.
  • Total work is $\frac{1}{2}+\frac{3}{8}$.
  • Thus, work completed is $\frac{7}{8}$.

In six hourly slots, $X$ can work at most three times, so $\frac{7}{8}$ is the maximum possible work. The remaining $\frac{1}{8}$ should be done by $X$, who is eligible after the sixth hour and is the fastest.

  • Required time is $\frac{1/8}{1/6}$.
  • This equals $\frac{3}{4}$ hour, or $45$ minutes.

Total time is $6$ hours $45$ minutes.

Option C

Question 9 of 80

How many consecutive zeros are there at the end of the integer obtained in the product $1^2 \times 2^4 \times 3^6 \times 4^8 \times \cdots \times 25^{50}$?

  1. A50
  2. B55
  3. C100
  4. D200

Correct answer Option D

Explanation

The general term is $n^{2n}$. The number of trailing zeros is the smaller of the total powers of $2$ and $5$.

Only multiples of $5$ contribute factors of $5$:

  • From $5^{10}$: $10$ factors of $5$.
  • From $10^{20}$: $20$ factors of $5$.
  • From $15^{30}$: $30$ factors of $5$.
  • From $20^{40}$: $40$ factors of $5$.
  • Since $25^{50}=(5^2)^{50}$, it contributes $100$.

Thus $v_5=10+20+30+40+100$, so $v_5=200$.

Every even base contributes at least one factor of $2$ for each copy of that base. Therefore, even before counting extra factors of $2$,

  • $v_2\ge 4+8+\cdots+48$
  • $v_2\ge312>200$

Hence the number of trailing zeros is $200$.

Option D

Question 10 of 80

On January 1st, 2023, a person saved ₹ 1. On January 2nd, 2023, he saved ₹ 2 more than that on the previous day. On January 3rd, 2023, he saved ₹ 2 more than that on the previous day and so on. At the end of which date was his total savings a perfect square as well a perfect cube?

  1. A7th January, 2023
  2. B8th January, 2023
  3. C9th January, 2023
  4. DNot possible

Correct answer Option B

Explanation

Savings form $1,3,5,\dots$ (first term $1$, common difference $2$).

  • Total after $n$ days $=$ sum of first $n$ odd numbers $=n^2$.

So the total is always a perfect square. We need it to also be a perfect cube:

  • $n=7\Rightarrow 49$, not a cube ✗
  • $n=8\Rightarrow 64=4^3$ ✓ (also $8^2$)
  • $n=9\Rightarrow 81$, not a cube ✗

Note that the total on January 1 is also $1$, which is both a perfect square and a perfect cube. Therefore, the literal wording admits more than one date. Among the listed options, January 8 is the only valid choice: the total $64$ is both a perfect square and a perfect cube.

Option B

Directions · Questions 11–12Answer the items below based solely on this passage.

Today, if we consider cities such as New York, London and Paris as some of the most iconic cities in the world, it is because plans carrying a heavy systems approach were imposed on their precincts. The backbone of the systems theory is the process of translating social, spatial and cultural desirables into mathematical models using computing, statistics, optimization and an algorithmic way of formulating and solving problems. The early universities of the West which began to train professionals in planning, spawned some of the most ingenious planners, who were experts in these domains. This was because these very subjects were absorbed into the planning curriculum that had its roots in the social sciences, geography and architecture. Planning in India, and its education differ from the West.

Question 11 of 80

Comprehension

Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?

  1. ACurriculum for urban planning courses should have diverse and interdisciplinary approach.
  2. BIn India, city administration is under bureaucracy which lacks formal training in urban planning and management.
  3. CIn India, the management of urban areas is a local affair with a chronic problem of insufficient funds.
  4. DWith high density of population and widespread poverty in our urban areas, planned development in them is very difficult.

Correct answer Option A

Explanation

The passage credits great Western planners to a curriculum that absorbed "computing, statistics, optimization" while having "its roots in the social sciences, geography and architecture" — i.e. a diverse, interdisciplinary mix.

Option A captures exactly this: planning curricula should be diverse and interdisciplinary. Supported.

  • B (bureaucracy lacks training), C (local affair, insufficient funds), D (density/poverty make planning hard) all bring in facts about India that the passage never states. Unsupported.

Option A

Question 12 of 80

Comprehension

Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:

1. India needs a new generation of urban professionals with knowledge relevant to modern urban practice.

2. Indian universities at present have no capacity or potential to impart training in systems approach.

Which of the assumptions given above is/are correct?

  1. A1 only
  2. B2 only
  3. CBoth 1 and 2
  4. DNeither 1 nor 2

Correct answer Option A

Explanation

Assumption 1: The passage contrasts the West's system-trained planners with "Planning in India, and its education differ from the West," implying India needs professionals equipped for modern urban practice. This underlies the passage. Valid.

Assumption 2: claims Indian universities have *no capacity or potential* for systems training. The passage only says Indian planning education *differs* — "differs" is not the same as "incapable." This is too strong. Invalid.

Option A

Directions · Questions 13–14Answer the items below based solely on this passage.

Not every voice on the internet commands the same kind of audience. When anonymous private entities with high capital can pay for more space for their opinions, they are effectively buying a louder voice. If political discourse in the digital sphere is a matter of outshining one's opponent till the election is won, then the quality of politics suffers. The focus of social media is restricted to the promotion of content that generates more user engagement, regardless of how inflammatory the content may be.

Question 13 of 80

Comprehension

Which one of the following statements best reflects the central idea of the above passage?

  1. AConstructed as a marketplace of views, social media ensures instant access to information.
  2. BSocial media are not ideal or moral institutions but the products built by companies to make profits.
  3. CSocial media have been created to strengthen democracies.
  4. DIn today's world, social media are inevitable for well-informed social life.

Correct answer Option B

Explanation

The passage directly establishes three points: money can buy a louder voice; digital rivalry can damage the quality of politics; and social media promotes engagement even when the content is inflammatory. These points show that social media is not an ideal or morally neutral public forum.

Option B is the best available answer because its critical description is consistent with those incentives. However, the passage does not expressly say that companies built social media "to make profits"; that clause is an inference from paid amplification and engagement-driven promotion, so the option is broader than the passage.

  • A mentions instant access to information, which is absent from the passage.
  • C says social media was created to strengthen democracy, contrary to the passage's criticism of its political effects.
  • D calls social media inevitable for an informed life, which the passage does not suggest.

Option B

Question 14 of 80

Comprehension

Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:

1. Internet is not inclusive enough.

2. Internet can adversely affect the quality of politics in a country.

Which of the assumptions given above is/are valid?

  1. A1 only
  2. B2 only
  3. CBoth 1 and 2
  4. DNeither 1 nor 2

Correct answer Option C

Explanation

Assumption 1: "Not every voice on the internet commands the same kind of audience" and money buys a louder voice — this presupposes the internet is not equally inclusive. Valid.

Assumption 2: "the quality of politics suffers" directly shows the internet can adversely affect politics. Valid.

Both assumptions hold.

Option C

Question 15 of 80

$222^{333} + 333^{222}$ is divisible by which of the following numbers?

  1. A2 and 3 but not 37
  2. B3 and 37 but not 2
  3. C2 and 37 but not 3
  4. D2, 3 and 37

Correct answer Option B

Explanation

Check each factor of $222^{333}+333^{222}$:

By 2: $222^{333}$ is even, $333^{222}$ is odd; even $+$ odd $=$ odd. Not divisible.

By 3: $222=3\times74$ and $333=3\times111$, so each term is a multiple of $3$; their sum is too. Divisible.

By 37: $222=6\times37$ and $333=9\times37$, so each term is a multiple of $37$; their sum is too. Divisible.

So it is divisible by $3$ and $37$ but not $2$.

Option B

Question 16 of 80

What percent of water must be mixed with honey so as to gain 20% by selling the mixture at the cost price of honey?

  1. A20%
  2. B10%
  3. C5%
  4. D4%

Correct answer Option A

Explanation

Let honey cost ₹ 1 per litre and take $1$ litre of honey; water is free.

  • Add $w$ litres of water $\Rightarrow$ mixture $=(1+w)$ litres.
  • Sold at honey's cost price ₹ 1/litre $\Rightarrow$ revenue $=(1+w)$.
  • Cost = ₹ 1 (honey only).
  • Profit $=w$, so profit% $=\frac{w}{1}\times100$.

For $20\%$: $w=0.2$ litre $=20\%$ of the honey.

Option A

Question 17 of 80

What is the rightmost digit preceding the zeros in the value of $30^{30}$?

  1. A1
  2. B3
  3. C7
  4. D9

Correct answer Option D

Explanation

First split the power:

  • $30^{30}=(3\times10)^{30}$
  • $=3^{30}\times10^{30}$

Thus the number is $3^{30}$ followed by $30$ zeros. The digit immediately before those zeros is the unit digit of $3^{30}$.

The unit digits of powers of $3$ cycle through $3,9,7,1$, with period $4$:

  • $30 \bmod 4=2$
  • The required digit is that of $3^2$, namely $9$.

Option D

Question 18 of 80

421 and 427, when divided by the same number, leave the same remainder 1. How many numbers can be used as the divisor in order to get the same remainder 1?

  1. A1
  2. B2
  3. C3
  4. D4

Correct answer Option C

Explanation

Same remainder $1$ means the divisor divides $421-1=420$ and $427-1=426$, and must be greater than the remainder ($>1$).

  • Common divisors are the divisors of $\gcd(420,426)$.
  • $426-420=6\Rightarrow \gcd=6$.
  • Divisors of $6$: $1,2,3,6$.
  • Discard $1$ (divisor must exceed remainder $1$).

Usable divisors: $2,3,6$ — that is $3$ numbers. (Check: $421=2\cdot210+1$, $421=3\cdot140+1$, $421=6\cdot70+1$, all remainder $1$.)

Option C

Question 19 of 80

A can $X$ contains 399 litres of petrol and a can $Y$ contains 532 litres of diesel. They are to be bottled in bottles of equal size so that whole of petrol and diesel would be separately bottled. The bottle capacity in terms of litres is an integer. How many different bottle sizes are possible?

  1. A3
  2. B4
  3. C5
  4. D6

Correct answer Option B

Explanation

The bottle size must divide both $399$ and $532$ (each fully bottled), so it divides $\gcd(399,532)$.

  • $399=3\times7\times19$
  • $532=2^2\times7\times19$
  • $\gcd=7\times19=133$

Common bottle sizes $=$ divisors of $133$: $1,7,19,133$ — that is $4$ sizes.

Option B

Question 20 of 80

Consider the following statements in respect of the sum $S = x + y + z$, where $x$, $y$ and $z$ are distinct prime numbers each less than 10:

1. The unit digit of $S$ can be 0.

2. The unit digit of $S$ can be 9.

3. The unit digit of $S$ can be 5.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

  1. A1 and 2 only
  2. B2 and 3 only
  3. C1 and 3 only
  4. D1, 2 and 3

Correct answer Option C

Explanation

Primes below $10$: $\{2,3,5,7\}$. Sums of three distinct ones:

  • $2+3+5=10$ (unit $0$)
  • $2+3+7=12$ (unit $2$)
  • $2+5+7=14$ (unit $4$)
  • $3+5+7=15$ (unit $5$)

Statement 1 (unit $0$): $10$ works ✓

Statement 2 (unit $9$): units available are $0,2,4,5$ — no $9$ ✗

Statement 3 (unit $5$): $15$ works ✓

Only 1 and 3 are correct.

Option C

Directions · Questions 21–22Answer the items below based solely on this passage.

By the time children reach class 8, the bulk of them tend to be in the age range of 13 years to 15 years. But in our country, about a quarter of all children in class 8 struggle with reading simple texts and more than half are still unable to do basic arithmetic operations like division. Every year about 25 million young boys and girls from elementary school move into the life that lies for them beyond compulsory schooling. They cannot enter the workforce at least in the organized sector till they are 18. For many families, these children are the first from their families ever to get this far in school. Parents and children expect that such 'graduates' from school will go on to high school and college. Hardly anyone wants to go back to agriculture. On the other hand, abilities in terms of academic competencies are far lower than they should be even based on curricular expectations of class 8.

Question 21 of 80

Comprehension

Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:

1. For effective school education, parents have greater role than the governments.

2. School curriculum that conforms to today's requirements and is uniform for the entire country may address the issues brought out.

Which of the assumptions given above is/are valid?

  1. A1 only
  2. B2 only
  3. CBoth 1 and 2
  4. DNeither 1 nor 2

Correct answer Option D

Explanation

Assumption 1: claims parents have a *greater role than governments*. The passage mentions parents' expectations but never compares parents' and governments' roles. Invalid.

Assumption 2: claims a *uniform national* curriculum would fix things. The passage notes abilities fall below curricular expectations but says nothing about a single uniform-for-the-whole-country curriculum. Invalid.

Neither assumption is valid.

Option D

Question 22 of 80

Comprehension

Which one of the following statements best reflects the central idea conveyed by the passage?

  1. ATotal eradication of poverty in the country will resolve the issue of under-performance of our school-children.
  2. BMonetary incentives to parents and teachers is a strategy to improve the children's academic performance.
  3. CPublic policy should ensure that competencies and achievements of young people are aligned with their expectations.
  4. DIndia is not going to take advantage of the demographic dividend unless some school pass-outs go back to agriculture.

Correct answer Option C

Explanation

The passage's core tension: students leave class 8 with high aspirations (college, not agriculture) but with competencies "far lower than they should be." The gap is between expectations and abilities.

Option C — public policy should align young people's competencies/achievements with their expectations — captures this. Best.

  • A (eradicate poverty), B (monetary incentives), D (return to agriculture) are solutions/claims the passage does not advance. Wrong.

Option C

Directions · Question 23Answer the items below based solely on this passage.

We take it for granted now that science has a social responsibility. The idea would not have occurred to Newton or Galileo. They thought of science as an account of the world as it is, and the only responsibility that they acknowledged was to tell the truth. The idea that science is a social enterprise is modern, and it begins at the industrial revolution. We are surprised that we cannot trace a social sense further back, because we nurse the illusion that the industrial revolution ended a golden age.

Question 23 of 80

Comprehension

Which one of the following statements best reflects the thinking of the author about the science?

  1. AScience must value the commitment of the scientists.
  2. BScience is a product of civilized society and must be used for the promotion of scientific awareness in people.
  3. CIndustrial revolution was made possible by the advancements in science.
  4. DScience must pursue truth but be responsible for social welfare.

Correct answer Option D

Explanation

The author notes that today science is expected to have a "social responsibility," whereas Newton and Galileo acknowledged only the responsibility "to tell the truth." The author presents both facets — pursuit of truth and social responsibility.

Option D — science must pursue truth but be responsible for social welfare — blends both, matching the author's view. Best.

  • A (value scientists' commitment), B (product of civilized society, spread awareness), C (industrial revolution caused by science) are not the author's stated position. Wrong.

Option D

Question 24 of 80

Consider the sequence

$A \_ BCD \_ BBCDABC \_ DABC \_ D$

that follows a certain pattern. Which one of the following completes the sequence?

  1. AB, A, D, C
  2. BB, A, C, D
  3. CA, A, C, D
  4. DA, A, D, C

Correct answer Option C

Explanation

Split the string into blocks of five ending in $D$. Each block is $ABCD$ with exactly one letter doubled, and the doubled letter marches $A\to B\to C\to D$:

  • Block 1: $A\,\_\,BCD \to AABCD$ (double $A$) $\Rightarrow$ blank $=A$
  • Block 2: $\_\,BBCD \to ABBCD$ (double $B$) $\Rightarrow$ blank $=A$
  • Block 3: $ABC\,\_\,D \to ABCCD$ (double $C$) $\Rightarrow$ blank $=C$
  • Block 4: $ABC\,\_\,D \to ABCDD$ (double $D$) $\Rightarrow$ blank $=D$

So the blanks are $A, A, C, D$.

Option C

Question 25 of 80

Two persons $P$ and $Q$ enter into a business. $P$ puts ₹ 14,000 more than $Q$, but $P$ has invested for 8 months and $Q$ has invested for 10 months. If $P$'s share is ₹ 400 more than $Q$'s share out of the total profit of ₹ 2,000, what is the capital contributed by $P$?

  1. A₹ 30,000
  2. B₹ 26,000
  3. C₹ 24,000
  4. D₹ 20,000

Correct answer Option A

Explanation

Let the profit shares of $P$ and $Q$ be $p$ and $q$.

  • $p+q=2000$
  • $p=q+400$
  • Hence $q=800$ and $p=1200$.
  • Therefore, $p:q=3:2$.

Profit is divided in the ratio of capital multiplied by time. Let $Q$'s capital be $x$; then $P$'s capital is $x+14000$.

  • $8(x+14000):10x=3:2$
  • $16(x+14000)=30x$
  • $16x+224000=30x$
  • $14x=224000$
  • Hence $x=16000$.

Therefore, $P$ invested $16000+14000$, or ₹ 30,000.

Check:

  • $P$'s weighted capital is $30000\times8=240000$.
  • $Q$'s weighted capital is $16000\times10=160000$.
  • Their ratio is $3:2$ ✓

Option A

Question 26 of 80

$P$'s salary is 20% lower than $Q$'s salary which is 20% lower than $R$'s salary. By how much percent is $R$'s salary more than $P$'s salary?

  1. A$48.75\%$
  2. B$56.25\%$
  3. C$60.50\%$
  4. D$62.25\%$

Correct answer Option B

Explanation

Take $R=100$.

$Q$ is $20\%$ below $R$, so $Q=80$.

$P$ is $20\%$ below $Q$, so $P=64$.

Calculation:

  • Difference: $100-64=36$
  • Percentage increase: $\frac{36}{64}\times100$
  • Result: $56.25\%$ ✓

Option B

Question 27 of 80

A number is mistakenly divided by 4 instead of multiplying by 4. What is the percentage change in the result due to this mistake?

  1. A25%
  2. B50%
  3. C$72.75\%$
  4. D$93.75\%$

Correct answer Option D

Explanation

Let the number be $N$.

  • Intended result: $4N$
  • Mistaken result: $\frac{N}{4}$

Relative to the intended result:

  • Actual fraction: $\frac{N/4}{4N}=\frac{1}{16}$
  • Percentage drop: $(1-\frac{1}{16})\times100$
  • Result: $93.75\%$ ✓

Option D

Question 28 of 80

In an examination, 80% of students passed in English, 70% of students passed in Hindi and 15% failed in both the subjects. What is the percentage of students who failed in only one subject?

  1. A15%
  2. B20%
  3. C25%
  4. D35%

Correct answer Option B

Explanation

Failed English $=100-80=20\%$; failed Hindi $=100-70=30\%$; failed both $=15\%$.

  • Failed only English $=20-15=5\%$
  • Failed only Hindi $=30-15=15\%$

Failed in exactly one subject $=5+15=20\%$.

Option B

Question 29 of 80

A father said to his son, "$n$ years back I was as old as you are now. My present age is four times your age $n$ years back". If the sum of the present ages of the father and the son is 130 years, what is the difference of their ages?

  1. A30 years
  2. B32 years
  3. C34 years
  4. D36 years

Correct answer Option A

Explanation

Let the present ages of the father and son be $F$ and $S$ years, respectively.

First condition: $n$ years ago, the father’s age equalled the son’s present age.

  • $F-n=S$
  • Hence $n=F-S$

Second condition: The father’s present age is four times the son’s age $n$ years ago.

  • $F=4(S-n)$

Substitute $n=F-S$:

  • $F=4(2S-F)$
  • $5F=8S$

Together with $F+S=130$, this gives $F=80$ and $S=50$.

Therefore, the age difference is $80-50=30$ years.

Check: $n=30$, the son was $20$, and $4\times20=80$ ✓

Option A

Question 30 of 80

Consider the following:

1. 1000 litres $= 1\,\text{m}^3$

2. 1 metric ton $= 1000$ kg

3. 1 hectare $= 10000\,\text{m}^2$

Which of the above are correct?

  1. A1 and 2 only
  2. B2 and 3 only
  3. C1 and 3 only
  4. D1, 2 and 3

Correct answer Option D

Explanation
  • (1) $1000$ litre $=1\,\text{m}^3$ since $1$ litre $=10^{-3}\,\text{m}^3$ ✓
  • (2) $1$ metric ton $=1000$ kg ✓
  • (3) $1$ hectare $=10000\,\text{m}^2$ ✓

All three are correct.

Option D

Directions · Questions 31–32Answer the items below based solely on this passage.

"The history of science is the real history of mankind." In this striking epigram, a nineteenth-century writer links science with its background. Like most epigrams, its power lies in emphasizing by contrast an aspect of truth which may be easily overlooked. In this case, it is easy to overlook the relations between science and mankind, and to treat the former as some abstract third party, which can sometimes be praised for its beneficial influences, but frequently and conveniently blamed for the horrors of war. Science and mankind cannot be divorced from time to time at men's convenience. Yet we have seen that, in spite of countless opportunities of improvement, the opening years of the present period of civilization have been dominated by international conflict. Is this the inevitable result of the progress of science or does the fault lie elsewhere?

Question 31 of 80

Comprehension

Which of the following is/are emphatically conveyed by the author of the passage?

1. Without science, mankind could not have continued to exist till today.

2. It is the science that will ultimately determine the destiny of mankind.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. A1 only
  2. B2 only
  3. CBoth 1 and 2
  4. DNeither 1 nor 2

Correct answer Option D

Explanation

The passage only asserts that science and mankind cannot be divorced — the epigram merely links science with its background.

  • Statement 1 (mankind could not exist without science): the passage never claims science is necessary for survival; it discusses the relation, not dependence for existence. Unsupported.
  • Statement 2 (science will determine mankind's destiny): the closing lines ask whether conflict is 'the inevitable result of the progress of science or does the fault lie elsewhere?' — it questions science's role, it does not assert science decides destiny. Unsupported.

Neither is emphatically conveyed.

Option D

Question 32 of 80

Comprehension

Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:

1. The horrors of modern life are the inevitable result of the progress of science.

2. The aspect of truth likely to be overlooked is that science is what man has made it.

Which of the assumptions given above is/are correct?

  1. A1 only
  2. B2 only
  3. CBoth 1 and 2
  4. DNeither 1 nor 2

Correct answer Option B

Explanation
  • Assumption 1: The passage does NOT assume the horrors are the inevitable result of science; it explicitly asks 'Is this the inevitable result of the progress of science or does the fault lie elsewhere?' — leaving it open. Invalid.
  • Assumption 2: The 'aspect of truth easily overlooked' is the relation between science and mankind — that science is not an abstract third party but is bound to man, i.e. 'science is what man has made it.' This matches the passage. Valid.

Only 2 is correct.

Option B

Directions · Questions 33–34Answer the items below based solely on this passage.

Only with long experience and opening of his wares on many a beach where his language is not spoken, will the merchant come to know the worth of what he carries, and what is parochial and what is universal in his choice. Such delicate goods as justice, love and honour, courtesy, and indeed all the things we care for, are valid everywhere but they are variously moulded and often differently handled, and sometimes nearly unrecognizable if you meet them in a foreign land, and the art of learning fundamental common values is perhaps the greatest gain of travel to those who wish to live at ease among their fellows.

Question 33 of 80

Comprehension

When we meet other people while we travel, we learn to differentiate between

  1. Aimagination and understanding
  2. Bcommunities and nationalities
  3. Clocal values and universal values
  4. Dfriends and foes

Correct answer Option C

Explanation

The passage says the merchant learns 'what is parochial and what is universal in his choice' — parochial (local) versus universal values.

  • (A) imagination/understanding — not mentioned.
  • (B) communities/nationalities — not the distinction drawn.
  • (C) local vs universal values — directly stated. ✓
  • (D) friends/foes — not in the passage.

Option C

Question 34 of 80

Comprehension

With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:

1. Travel leads to an understanding of humans.

2. Travel helps those who wish to learn fundamental common values.

3. A person with long experience in travel can resolve differences amongst people.

Which of the assumptions given above are valid?

  1. A1 and 2 only
  2. B2 and 3 only
  3. C1 and 3 only
  4. D1, 2 and 3

Correct answer Option A

Explanation
  • (1) 'learning fundamental common values is the greatest gain of travel to those who wish to live at ease among their fellows' — travel leads to understanding of humans. Valid.
  • (2) The same line supports that travel helps those who wish to learn fundamental common values. Valid.
  • (3) The passage speaks of learning to live 'at ease among their fellows', not of resolving differences among other people. Not supported.

So 1 and 2 only.

Option A

Question 35 of 80

Let $X$ be a two-digit number and $Y$ be another two-digit number formed by interchanging the digits of $X$. If $(X + Y)$ is the greatest two-digit number, then what is the number of possible values of $X$?

  1. A2
  2. B4
  3. C6
  4. D8

Correct answer Option D

Explanation

Let $X=10a+b$, so $Y=10b+a$.

$X+Y=11(a+b)$ — always a multiple of $11$.

Greatest two-digit multiple of $11$ is $99$, so $a+b=9$.

Both $X,Y$ must be two-digit, so $a\ge1$ and $b\ge1$:

  • $a=1,b=8$; $a=2,b=7$; ... up to $a=8,b=1$

That is $a=1$ to $8$ → $8$ values of $X$.

Option D

Question 36 of 80

Consider the following:

Weight of 6 boys = Weight of 7 girls = Weight of 3 men = Weight of 4 women

If the average weight of the women is 63 kg, then what is the average weight of the boys?

  1. A40 kg
  2. B42 kg
  3. C45 kg
  4. D63 kg

Correct answer Option B

Explanation

The total weight of $6$ boys equals that of $4$ women.

  • Weight of $4$ women: $4\times63=252$ kg
  • Average weight of boys: $\frac{252}{6}=42$ kg ✓

Option B

Question 37 of 80

How many times the hour hand and the minute hand coincide in a clock between 10:00 a.m. and 2:00 p.m. (same day)?

  1. A3 times
  2. B4 times
  3. C5 times
  4. D6 times

Correct answer Option A

Explanation

Hands coincide $11$ times every $12$ hours (once about every $65.45$ min).

Starting after $10{:}00$, coincidences fall at about:

  • $10{:}54{:}33$ ✓
  • $12{:}00{:}00$ ✓
  • $1{:}05{:}27$ ✓

The next is $\approx2{:}10{:}54$, which is after $2{:}00$ p.m.

So they coincide $3$ times.

Option A

Question 38 of 80

The calendar for the year 2025 is same for

  1. A2029
  2. B2030
  3. C2031
  4. D2033

Correct answer Option C

Explanation

A calendar repeats when the weekday shift is $0$ modulo $7$ and both years are of the same type. The year $2025$ is non-leap.

From $2025$ through $2030$:

  • Five non-leap years contribute $5$ odd days.
  • Leap year $2028$ contributes $2$ odd days.
  • Total: $5+2=7\equiv0\pmod{7}$ ✓

Thus $2031$ begins on the same weekday as $2025$. Since $2031$ is also non-leap, the calendars are identical.

Option C

Question 39 of 80

Let $p$, $q$, $r$ and $s$ be distinct positive integers. Let $p$, $q$ be odd and $r$, $s$ be even. Consider the following statements:

1. $(p - r)^2 (qs)$ is even.

2. $(q - s)q^2 s$ is even.

3. $(q + r)^2 (p + s)$ is odd.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

  1. A1 and 2 only
  2. B2 and 3 only
  3. C1 and 3 only
  4. D1, 2 and 3

Correct answer Option D

Explanation

$p,q$ are odd and $r,s$ are even.

  • (1) Since $q$ is odd and $s$ is even, $qs$ is even; hence the full product is even. ✓
  • (2) The product contains the even factor $s$, so it is even. ✓
  • (3) Both $q+r$ and $p+s$ are odd. Therefore $(q+r)^2$ and the full product are odd. ✓

All three statements are correct.

Option D

Question 40 of 80

What is the angle between the minute hand and hour hand when the clock shows 4:25 hours?

  1. A$12.5°$
  2. B$15°$
  3. C$17.5°$
  4. D$20°$

Correct answer Option C

Explanation

At $4{:}25$:

  • Minute-hand angle: $25\times6=150°$
  • Hour mark for $4$: $4\times30=120°$
  • Extra hour-hand movement: $25\times0.5=12.5°$
  • Hour-hand angle: $120+12.5=132.5°$
  • Smaller angle: $150-132.5=17.5°$ ✓

Option C

Directions · Questions 41–42Answer the items below based solely on this passage.

Conventional classrooms, by emphasizing fixed duration over learning effectiveness, resign themselves to variable outcomes. The tyranny of the classroom is that every learner is subjected to the same set of lectures in the same way for the same duration. In the end, a few learners shine, some survive, and the rest are left behind. After the fixed duration, the classroom model moves on, with not a thought spared for those left behind. This is how we end up with 10 percent employability in our graduates after a decade and half of formal education. Repeating the same ineffectual script in the realm of skill education will not produce different results.

Question 41 of 80

Comprehension

Which of the following statements best reflects/reflect the most logical and rational inference/inferences that can be made from the passage?

1. In conventional classroom learning, the central goal is duration of learning rather than attainment of competency.

2. Conventional classrooms encourage one-size-fits-all approach and stamp out all differentiation.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. A1 only
  2. B2 only
  3. CBoth 1 and 2
  4. DNeither 1 nor 2

Correct answer Option C

Explanation
  • Statement 1: The passage says conventional classrooms emphasize fixed duration over learning effectiveness. Therefore duration, rather than attainment of competency, is the controlling goal. ✓
  • Statement 2: Every learner receives the same lectures, in the same way, for the same duration. This directly describes a one-size-fits-all system that removes differentiated instruction. Different learner outcomes do not disprove this point. ✓

Both statements follow.

Option C

Question 42 of 80

Comprehension

Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:

1. As a large number of workers in our country are employed in unorganized sector, India does not need to change its present conventional classroom system of education.

2. Even with its present conventional classroom system of education, India produces sufficient number of skilled workers to fully realize the benefits of demographic dividend.

Which of the assumptions given above is/are valid?

  1. A1 only
  2. B2 only
  3. CBoth 1 and 2
  4. DNeither 1 nor 2

Correct answer Option D

Explanation
  • Assumption 1: The passage argues the current model fails ('10 percent employability', 'repeating the same ineffectual script...will not produce different results') — it implies India MUST change, the opposite of 'does not need to change.' Invalid.
  • Assumption 2: The passage says formal education yields only '10 percent employability' — i.e. it does NOT produce sufficient skilled workers. Invalid.

Neither assumption is valid.

Option D

Directions · Questions 43–44Answer the items below based solely on this passage.

...dogmatic that the young seldom confide in them, and usually go their own way in secret.

Question 43 of 80

Comprehension

Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made :

1. The adolescent does not feel comfortable with his parents because they tend to be dominating and assertive.

2. The adolescent of modern times does not have much respect for parents.

Which of the assumptions given above is/are valid?

  1. A1 only
  2. B2 only
  3. CBoth 1 and 2
  4. DNeither 1 nor 2

Correct answer Option A

Explanation

The supplied excerpt starts mid-sentence. On the intended reading, the omitted subject refers to dogmatic parents or adults in whom the young seldom confide.

  • Assumption 1: The young avoid confiding in such parents and instead follow their own way secretly. This supports the inference that adolescents are uncomfortable with dominating and assertive parents. Valid. ✓
  • Assumption 2: Lack of confidence and secret conduct do not establish lack of respect for parents. Unsupported. ✗

Only 1 is valid.

Option A

Question 44 of 80

Comprehension

Which one of the following statements best reflects the central idea of the above passage?

  1. AParents in general may not be of much help when children are on their way to becoming adults.
  2. BWhen children reach adolescence, involvement of parents in their lives is unnecessary.
  3. CModern-day nuclear families are not capable of bringing up children properly.
  4. DIn modern societies, adolescents tend to be stubborn, disobedient and careless.

Correct answer Option A

Explanation

The supplied excerpt is truncated. Under its intended reading, ‘them’ refers to dogmatic parents or adults; the young seldom confide in them and instead follow their own way secretly. This makes (A) the closest available statement of the central idea.

  • (B) The passage does not say parental involvement is unnecessary. ✗
  • (C) Nuclear families are not mentioned. ✗
  • (D) The young are not described as stubborn, disobedient or careless. ✗

The missing opening context should be restored for the inference to be fully self-contained.

Option A

Question 45 of 80

What is the number of fives used in numbering a 260-page book?

  1. A55
  2. B56
  3. C57
  4. D60

Correct answer Option B

Explanation

Count the digit $5$ in page numbers $1$–$260$.

Units place (ending in 5): $5,15,\dots,255$ → $\frac{255-5}{10}+1=26$.

Tens place (5 in tens): $50$–$59$, $150$–$159$, $250$–$259$ → $10+10+10=30$.

Hundreds place: none ($\le260$).

Total $=26+30=56$.

Option B

Question 46 of 80

What is the sum of the first 28 terms in the following sequence?

$1, 1, 2, 1, 3, 2, 1, 4, 3, 2, 1, 5, 4, 3, 2, \ldots$

  1. A83
  2. B84
  3. C85
  4. D86

Correct answer Option B

Explanation

Group the sequence into blocks:

  • Block $k$: $1,k,k-1,\dots,2$ (length $k$)

Block lengths $1+2+\dots+7=28$, so the first $28$ terms $=$ blocks $1$–$7$.

Sum of block $k=\frac{k(k+1)}{2}$ (a triangular number):

  • $1,3,6,10,15,21,28$

Total $=1+3+6+10+15+21+28=84$.

Option B

Question 47 of 80

A person buys three articles $P$, $Q$ and $R$ for ₹3,330. If $P$ costs 25% more than $R$ and $R$ costs 20% more than $Q$, then what is the cost of $P$?

  1. A₹1,000
  2. B₹1,200
  3. C₹1,250
  4. D₹1,350

Correct answer Option D

Explanation

Since $R$ costs $20\%$ more than $Q$, take $Q=10k$ and $R=12k$.

Since $P$ costs $25\%$ more than $R$:

  • $P=15k$
  • Total ratio $P:Q:R=15:10:12$
  • $37k=3330\Rightarrow k=90$
  • $P=15\times90=1350$ ✓

Option D

Question 48 of 80

If the sum of the two-digit numbers AB and CD is the three-digit number 1CE, where the letters A, B, C, D, E denote distinct digits, then what is the value of A?

  1. A9
  2. B8
  3. C7
  4. DCannot be determined due to insufficient data

Correct answer Option A

Explanation

Write $AB=10A+B$ and $CD=10C+D$. Since $AB+CD=1CE$:

  • $10A+B+10C+D$
  • $=100+10C+E$

Cancel $10C$:

  • $10A+B+D=100+E$
  • $10A=100+E-B-D$

Because $B+D\le18$ and $0\le E\le9$:

  • $82\le10A\le109$

Since $A$ is a digit, $10A\le90$. Thus the only possible multiple of $10$ in this range is $90$, so $A=9$.

Feasibility check: $92+38=130$; the digits $9,2,3,8,0$ are distinct. ✓

Option A

Question 49 of 80

Three numbers $x$, $y$, $z$ are selected from the set of the first seven natural numbers such that $x > 2y > 3z$. How many such distinct triplets $(x, y, z)$ are possible?

  1. AOne triplet
  2. BTwo triplets
  3. CThree triplets
  4. DFour triplets

Correct answer Option D

Explanation

Need $x>2y$ and $2y>3z$ with $x,y,z\in\{1,\dots,7\}$.

From $x>2y$ and $x\le7$: $y\le3$; from $2y>3z\ge3$: $y\ge2$.

  • $y=2$ ($2y=4$): $x>4\Rightarrow x\in\{5,6,7\}$; $4>3z\Rightarrow z=1$ → $(5,2,1),(6,2,1),(7,2,1)$
  • $y=3$ ($2y=6$): $x>6\Rightarrow x=7$; $6>3z\Rightarrow z=1$ → $(7,3,1)$

Total $=4$ triplets.

Option D

Question 50 of 80

The total cost of 4 oranges, 6 mangoes and 8 apples is equal to twice the total cost of 1 orange, 2 mangoes and 5 apples. Consider the following statements :

1. The total cost of 3 oranges, 5 mangoes and 9 apples is equal to the total cost of 4 oranges, 6 mangoes and 8 apples.

2. The total cost of one orange and one mango is equal to the cost of one apple.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. A1 only
  2. B2 only
  3. CBoth 1 and 2
  4. DNeither 1 nor 2

Correct answer Option C

Explanation

Let the prices of an orange, a mango and an apple be $o$, $m$ and $a$.

Given: $4o+6m+8a=2(o+2m+5a)$

$4o+6m+8a=2o+4m+10a$

$2o+2m-2a=0$

$o+m=a$

Statement 1: The difference between $4o+6m+8a$ and $3o+5m+9a$ is $o+m-a=0$. Therefore, the two totals are equal. ✓

Statement 2: $o+m=a$ means that one orange and one mango together cost as much as one apple. ✓

Both statements are correct. — Option C

Directions · Question 51Answer the items below based solely on this passage.

When an international team of scientists pumped a carbon dioxide and water mix into underground basalt rocks, basic chemistry took over. The acidic mixture dissolved rocks' calcium and magnesium and formed limestone. Basically carbon dioxide is converted into stone, exclaimed the scientists.

Question 51 of 80

Comprehension

Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical, rational and practical suggestion implied by the passage?

  1. AIt is a cheap and practical method to produce limestone at commercial level for building purposes.
  2. BThis can be used as one of the methods of carbon sequestration.
  3. CBasalt rock can be made a good source of calcium and magnesium minerals by this method.
  4. DGood rock-dissolving acid can be produced by mixing carbon dioxide and water.

Correct answer Option B

Explanation

The passage states that 'carbon dioxide is converted into stone.' Immobilizing $CO_2$ in a solid form directly supports its use as a method of carbon sequestration.

  • Option A — the passage gives no evidence that the method is cheap, commercially practical or intended for building material.
  • Option C — calcium and magnesium are dissolved during limestone formation; the passage does not propose extracting them as mineral products.
  • Option D — the acidic mixture is part of the process, but producing a rock-dissolving acid is not the suggested application.

Option B

Directions · Question 52Answer the items below based solely on this passage.

Geographers analyzed 175 satellite images of ocean colour, which is an indicator of phytoplankton productivity at the ocean's surface, and found that giant icebergs are responsible for storing up to 20 percent of carbon in the Southern Ocean. The researchers discovered that melting water from giant icebergs which contains iron and other nutrients, supports hitherto unexpectedly high levels of phytoplankton growth.

Question 52 of 80

Comprehension

Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made :

1. Giant icebergs have a bearing on primary productivity and food chains of the Southern Ocean.

2. Melting of giant icebergs can produce climate change effects and impact world fisheries.

Which of the assumptions given above is/are valid?

  1. A1 only
  2. B2 only
  3. CBoth 1 and 2
  4. DNeither 1 nor 2

Correct answer Option C

Explanation

Assumption 1: The passage says iceberg meltwater supports 'unexpectedly high levels of phytoplankton growth.' Because phytoplankton drives primary productivity and marine food chains, giant icebergs bear on both. Valid

Assumption 2: The passage links giant icebergs with storage of 'up to 20 percent of carbon' and with phytoplankton growth. Carbon storage has climate effects, while changes at the base of marine food chains can affect fisheries. Valid

Both assumptions follow. — Option C

Directions · Question 53Answer the items below based solely on this passage.

Evolution has endowed caterpillars that feed on corn with a unique ability, they can induce the plant to turn off its defence against insect predators. This helps caterpillars to eat more and grow faster. The agent that causes this effect is the caterpillar's faeces or frass. The find could throw new light on compounds associated with plant response to pathogens like fungi or bacteria.

Question 53 of 80

Comprehension

Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical, rational and practical message conveyed by the passage?

  1. AFarmers can use caterpillars to feed on weeds in their crop fields/plantations.
  2. BThis finding can help in the development of clinically useful antimicrobial compounds.
  3. CThis finding can help in the development of organic, ecologically sustainable pesticides.
  4. DCaterpillars can be genetically modified to be predators of the other plant pests.

Correct answer Option C

Explanation

The passage says the finding could illuminate 'compounds associated with plant response to pathogens like fungi or bacteria.' A possible plant-protection application is therefore the closest match among the choices, so C is the best available answer.

Question-quality caveat: The passage does not establish that any resulting pesticide would be organic or ecologically sustainable. Thus, C is plausible but not fully entailed by the passage.

  • Option A — the caterpillars feed on corn, not weeds.
  • Option B — a plant response to pathogens does not by itself imply clinically useful antimicrobial compounds.
  • Option D — genetic modification and predation on other pests are not mentioned.

Option C

Question 54 of 80

$32^5 + 2^{27}$ is divisible by

  1. A3
  2. B7
  3. C10
  4. D11

Correct answer Option C

Explanation

$32=2^5$, so $32^5=2^{25}$.

$32^5+2^{27}$

$=2^{25}(1+2^2)$

$=2^{25}\times 5$

$=2^{24}\times 10$

Hence the number is divisible by $10$. Its prime factors are only $2$ and $5$, so it is not divisible by $3$, $7$ or $11$. — Option C

Question 55 of 80

Let $p$ and $q$ be positive integers satisfying $p < q$ and $p + q = k$. What is the smallest value of $k$ that does not determine $p$ and $q$ uniquely?

  1. A3
  2. B4
  3. C5
  4. D6

Correct answer Option C

Explanation

We need the smallest $k$ for which more than one ordered pair satisfies $p

  • $k=3$: only $(1,2)$ — unique
  • $k=4$: only $(1,3)$; $(2,2)$ violates $p
  • $k=5$: $(1,4)$ and $(2,3)$ — not unique ✓

Thus the smallest such value is $k=5$. — Option C

Question 56 of 80

A person walks 100 m straight from his house, turns left and walks 100 m, again turns left and walks 300 m, then turns right and walks 100 m to reach his office. In which direction does he walk initially from his house if his office is exactly in the North-East direction?

  1. ANorth-West
  2. BWest
  3. CSouth
  4. DSouth-West

Correct answer Option C

Explanation

Relative to the initial direction:

  • the first and third legs give a net movement of $200$ m backward
  • the second and fourth legs give a total movement of $200$ m to the left

For the net movement to be North-East, backward must point North and left must point East. Both occur when the initial direction is South. — Option C

Question 57 of 80

A person walks 100 m Westward, then turns left and walks 100 m. He then takes 225° turn clockwise. In which direction is he walking now?

  1. ASouth-West
  2. BSouth-East
  3. CNorth-West
  4. DNorth-East

Correct answer Option D

Explanation

Start facing West. Turn left: the left of West is South, so after the 2nd leg he faces South.

Bearing of South $=180°$. A $225°$ clockwise turn adds:

$180°+225°=405°\equiv 45°$

Bearing $45°$ is North-East. — Option D

Question 58 of 80

A Statement is given followed by two Conclusions numbered I and II. Consider the Statement and the Conclusions.

Statement :

India is the world's largest producer of milk.

Conclusion-I :

India is the world's largest exporter of milk.

Conclusion-II :

India does not import milk.

Which one of the following is correct?

  1. AOnly Conclusion-I follows
  2. BOnly Conclusion-II follows
  3. CBoth Conclusion-I and Conclusion-II follow
  4. DNeither Conclusion-I nor Conclusion-II follows

Correct answer Option D

Explanation

Being the largest producer does not imply being the largest exporter (most milk may be consumed at home) — Conclusion I does not follow.

Being the largest producer says nothing about imports; a country can produce the most and still import — Conclusion II does not follow.

Neither follows. — Option D

Question 59 of 80

A Question is given followed by two Statements I and II. Consider the Question and the Statements.

Question :

What are the values of $m$ and $n$, where $m$ and $n$ are natural numbers?

Statement-I :

$m + n > mn$ and $m > n$.

Statement-II :

The product of $m$ and $n$ is 24.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements?

  1. AThe Question can be answered by using one of the Statements alone, but cannot be answered using the other Statement alone
  2. BThe Question can be answered by using either Statement alone
  3. CThe Question can be answered by using both the Statements together, but cannot be answered using either Statement alone
  4. DThe Question cannot be answered even by using both the Statements together

Correct answer Option C

Explanation

Statement I: $m+n>mn$.

$\Rightarrow (m-1)(n-1)<1$

Because $m,n$ are positive integers, $(m-1)(n-1)$ is a non-negative integer; hence it is $0$. Thus $m=1$ or $n=1$. With $m>n$, we get $n=1$ and $m\ge2$. Both $(m,n)=(2,1)$ and $(3,1)$ work. Insufficient

Statement II: $mn=24$ allows, for example, $(m,n)=(1,24)$ and $(2,12)$. Insufficient

Combined: Statement I gives $n=1$. Then $mn=24$ gives $m=24$. The unique pair is $(24,1)$. Sufficient

Option C

Question 60 of 80

A Question is given followed by two Statements I and II. Consider the Question and the Statements.

Question :

What is the time required to download the software?

Statement-I :

The size of the software is 12 megabytes.

Statement-II :

The transfer rate is 2·4 kilobytes per second.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements?

  1. AThe Question can be answered by using one of the Statements alone, but cannot be answered using the other Statement alone
  2. BThe Question can be answered by using either Statement alone
  3. CThe Question can be answered by using both the Statements together, but cannot be answered using either Statement alone
  4. DThe Question cannot be answered even by using both the Statements together

Correct answer Option C

Explanation

Statement I: The size is known, but the transfer rate is not. The download time cannot be determined. Insufficient

Statement II: The transfer rate is known, but the software size is not. The download time cannot be determined. Insufficient

Combined: After converting the units consistently, time is obtained by dividing size by transfer rate. Both required quantities are known. Sufficient

Option C

Directions · Question 61Answer the items below based solely on this passage.

In a robust democracy, reality, howsoever inconvenient it may be, finds its expression both in the speech of political leaders and the other social forms of assertion. The existence of the real has to be transparent, both through its circulation in and by the media as well as its argumentative articulation in deliberative democracy. A normatively responsible media through its communication effect has the responsibility to circulate the content of reality without distortion.

Question 61 of 80

Comprehension

Which one of the following statements best reflects the crux of the above passage?

  1. AResponsible media should not distort the real in an ideal democracy.
  2. BFake news seems inherent in the life of an ideal democracy.
  3. CThere should not be any kind of restrictions on the freedom of expression in an ideal democracy.
  4. DIrresponsible media and political leaders cannot be effectively controlled in an ideal democracy.

Correct answer Option A

Explanation

The passage's core: a 'normatively responsible media... has the responsibility to circulate the content of reality without distortion' in a robust democracy. That is exactly option A.

  • B — the passage never says fake news is inherent.
  • C — it speaks of responsibility, not absence of restrictions.
  • D — controlling irresponsible media is not discussed.

Option A

Directions · Question 62Answer the items below based solely on this passage.

Now-a-days there is a growing trend to use interconnected home devices. As consumers increasingly network their homes, the connected home device manufacturers and service providers will seek to overcome "thin profit margins by gathering more of our personal data—with or without our agreement—turning the home into a corporate storefront". Corporate marketers will have powerful incentives to observe consumer behaviour to understand the buying needs and preferences of the device owners.

Question 62 of 80

Comprehension

Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical, rational and practical message implied by the passage?

  1. AKnowledge of consumer behaviour leads to more capital expenditure in manufacturing sector.
  2. BKnowledge of consumer behaviour stimulates the growth of commerce and trade and thus helps in the overall economic development of the country.
  3. CInterconnected devices give a lot of comfort to home users and improve the overall quality of life.
  4. DInterconnected devices can be at security risk and home users may have privacy risk.

Correct answer Option D

Explanation

The passage says manufacturers may gather 'more of our personal data—with or without our agreement' and observe device owners' buying needs and preferences. This directly supports the privacy-risk part of D.

  • Option A — manufacturing capital expenditure is not discussed.
  • Option B — growth of trade or national economic development is not discussed.
  • Option C — comfort and quality-of-life benefits are not mentioned.

Question-quality caveat: The passage does not establish D's separate claim that the devices themselves face a security risk. No option is fully supported; D is the best available answer only because its privacy-risk claim is directly grounded in the passage.

Option D

Directions · Question 63Answer the items below based solely on this passage.

Green growth involves rethinking growth strategies with regard to the impacts on environmental sustainability and the environmental resources available to poor and vulnerable groups. In rethinking growth, we need to focus on the current reality of a resource-constrained world. Resource intensive and, in particular energy intensive processes will need to make way for more efficient and resource frugal development strategies if we are to avoid an economic dead end or a world in which only a small elite is able to enjoy affluence in the midst of a sea of poverty.

Question 63 of 80

Comprehension

Which one of the following statements best reflects the crux of the above passage?

  1. AEnvironmental sustainability is inimical to our objective of achieving a high rate of GDP growth.
  2. BPoverty eradication is not possible without a rapid economic growth and the consequent environmental degradation.
  3. CMaintaining high environmental standards is now a prerequisite for achieving a steady, sufficient and inclusive growth.
  4. DWith large populations, rampant poverty and limited resources of today's world, environmental degradation cannot be prevented and inequalities are inevitable.

Correct answer Option C

Explanation

Crux: 'green growth' rethinks growth around environmental sustainability, replacing resource/energy-intensive processes with 'resource frugal' ones to avoid an 'economic dead end' and a world of elite affluence amid poverty — i.e. sound environmental standards underpin steady, sufficient, inclusive growth. Option C.

  • A — the passage treats sustainability as enabling, not hostile, to growth.
  • B — it warns against environment-degrading growth, not endorses it.
  • D — it argues degradation/inequality can be avoided, not that they are inevitable.

Option C

Question 64 of 80

A Question is given followed by two Statements I and II. Consider the Question and the Statements.

Question :

What are the unique values of $x$ and $y$, where $x$, $y$ are distinct natural numbers?

Statement-I : $x / y$ is odd.

Statement-II : $xy = 12$

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements?

  1. AThe Question can be answered by using one of the Statements alone, but cannot be answered using the other Statement alone
  2. BThe Question can be answered by using either Statement alone
  3. CThe Question can be answered by using both the Statements together, but cannot be answered using either Statement alone
  4. DThe Question cannot be answered even by using both the Statements together

Correct answer Option C

Explanation

Statement I: If $x/y$ is an odd integer, both $(x,y)=(3,1)$ and $(9,3)$ satisfy it. Insufficient

Statement II: $xy=12$ permits multiple ordered pairs, for example:

  • $(x,y)=(1,12)$
  • $(x,y)=(2,6)$

Insufficient

Combined: Let $x=ky$, where $k$ is odd. Then $ky^2=12$. The only possible odd divisors $k$ are checked separately:

  • $k=1$: $y^2=12$, impossible for natural $y$ ✗
  • $k=3$: $y^2=4$, so $y=2$ and $x=6$ ✓

The unique ordered pair is $(6,2)$. Sufficient

Option C

Question 65 of 80

A Question is given followed by two Statements I and II. Consider the Question and the Statements.

A certain amount was distributed among $X$, $Y$ and $Z$.

Question :

Who received the least amount?

Statement-I :

$X$ received 4/5 of what $Y$ and $Z$ together received.

Statement-II :

$Y$ received 2/7 of what $X$ and $Z$ together received.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements?

  1. AThe Question can be answered by using one of the Statements alone, but cannot be answered using the other Statement alone
  2. BThe Question can be answered by using either Statement alone
  3. CThe Question can be answered by using both the Statements together, but cannot be answered using either Statement alone
  4. DThe Question cannot be answered even by using both the Statements together

Correct answer Option C

Explanation

Let the total amount be $T$.

Statement I: $X=\frac{4}{5}(Y+Z)$, so $X=\frac{4}{9}T$. For $T=9$, both distributions satisfy the statement:

  • $(X,Y,Z)=(4,1,4)$: $Y$ is least
  • $(X,Y,Z)=(4,3,2)$: $Z$ is least

Insufficient

Statement II: $Y=\frac{2}{7}(X+Z)$, so $Y=\frac{2}{9}T$. For $T=9$:

  • $(X,Y,Z)=(1,2,6)$: $X$ is least
  • $(X,Y,Z)=(3,2,4)$: $Y$ is least

Insufficient

Combined: $X=\frac{4}{9}T$ and $Y=\frac{2}{9}T$, hence $Z=\frac{3}{9}T$. Therefore $Y$ receives the least amount. Sufficient

Option C

Question 66 of 80

A Question is given followed by two Statements I and II. Consider the Question and the Statements.

Question :

If the average marks in a class are 60, then what is the number of students in the class?

Statement-I :

The highest marks in the class are 70 and the lowest marks are 50.

Statement-II :

Exclusion of highest and lowest marks from the class does not change the average.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements?

  1. AThe Question can be answered by using one of the Statements alone, but cannot be answered using the other Statement alone
  2. BThe Question can be answered by using either Statement alone
  3. CThe Question can be answered by using both the Statements together, but cannot be answered using either Statement alone
  4. DThe Question cannot be answered even by using both the Statements together

Correct answer Option D

Explanation

Statement I: The average is already $60$. These two classes both have lowest marks $50$ and highest marks $70$:

  • $3$ students: $50,60,70$
  • $4$ students: $50,60,60,70$

The number of students differs. Insufficient

Statement II: If removing one highest and one lowest mark leaves the average at $60$, those two removed marks sum to $120$. This condition does not determine the class size; the same two examples satisfy it. Insufficient

Combined: Both examples satisfy both statements but have different class sizes. Insufficient

Option D

Question 67 of 80

A Question is given followed by two Statements I and II. Consider the Question and the Statements.

There are three distinct prime numbers whose sum is a prime number.

Question :

What are those three numbers?

Statement-I : Their sum is less than 23.

Statement-II : One of the numbers is 5.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements?

  1. AThe Question can be answered by using one of the Statements alone, but cannot be answered using the other Statement alone
  2. BThe Question can be answered by using either Statement alone
  3. CThe Question can be answered by using both the Statements together, but cannot be answered using either Statement alone
  4. DThe Question cannot be answered even by using both the Statements together

Correct answer Option A

Explanation

A prime sum of three distinct primes cannot include $2$: the other two primes would be odd, making the sum even and greater than $2$. Hence all three numbers are odd primes.

Statement I: For a sum below $23$, all possible triples are:

  • $3+5+7=15$ ✗
  • $3+5+11=19$ ✓
  • $3+5+13=21$ ✗
  • $3+7+11=21$ ✗

Only $\{3,5,11\}$ works. Sufficient

Statement II: If one number is $5$, multiple triples work:

  • $\{3,5,11\}$ gives $19$
  • $\{5,7,11\}$ gives $23$
  • $\{5,11,13\}$ gives $29$

Insufficient

Statement I alone is sufficient, but Statement II alone is not. — Option A

Question 68 of 80

A Question is given followed by two Statements I and II. Consider the Question and the Statements.

Question : Is $(x + y)$ an integer?

Statement-I : $(2x + y)$ is an integer.

Statement-II : $(x + 2y)$ is an integer.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements?

  1. AThe Question can be answered by using one of the Statements alone, but cannot be answered using the other Statement alone
  2. BThe Question can be answered by using either Statement alone
  3. CThe Question can be answered by using both the Statements together, but cannot be answered using either Statement alone
  4. DThe Question cannot be answered even by using both the Statements together

Correct answer Option D

Explanation

Statement I: $2x+y$ can be an integer in both cases:

  • $x=0,y=0$: $x+y=0$ is an integer ✓
  • $x=0.5,y=0$: $2x+y=1$, but $x+y=0.5$ ✗

The answer varies. Insufficient

Statement II: $x+2y$ can also be an integer in both cases:

  • $x=0,y=0$: $x+y=0$ is an integer ✓
  • $x=0,y=0.5$: $x+2y=1$, but $x+y=0.5$ ✗

The answer varies. Insufficient

Combined: Adding the two integer expressions shows that $3(x+y)$ is an integer, but $x+y$ need not be an integer:

  • $x=y=1$: both given expressions are $3$ and $x+y=2$ ✓
  • $x=y=\frac{1}{3}$: both given expressions are $1$, but $x+y=\frac{2}{3}$ ✗

The answer still varies. Insufficient

Option D

Question 69 of 80

A Question is given followed by two Statements I and II. Consider the Question and the Statements.

A person buys three articles $p$, $q$ and $r$ for ₹50. The price of the article $q$ is ₹16 which is the least.

Question :

What is the price of the article $p$?

Statement-I :

The cost of $p$ is not more than that of $r$.

Statement-II :

The cost of $r$ is not more than that of $p$.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements?

  1. AThe Question can be answered by using one of the Statements alone, but cannot be answered using the other Statement alone
  2. BThe Question can be answered by using either Statement alone
  3. CThe Question can be answered by using both the Statements together, but cannot be answered using either Statement alone
  4. DThe Question cannot be answered even by using both the Statements together

Correct answer Option C

Explanation

From $p+q+r=50$ and $q=16$, we get $p+r=34$. Since $q$ is least, $p,r\ge16$.

Statement I: $p\le r$. Both price pairs satisfy it:

  • $(p,r)=(17,17)$
  • $(p,r)=(16.5,17.5)$

Thus $p$ is not unique. Insufficient

Statement II: $r\le p$. Both price pairs satisfy it:

  • $(p,r)=(17,17)$
  • $(p,r)=(17.5,16.5)$

Again $p$ is not unique. Insufficient

Combined: $p\le r$ and $r\le p$, so $p=r$. Since $p+r=34$, $p=17$. Sufficient

Option C

Question 70 of 80

A Question is given followed by two Statements I and II. Consider the Question and the Statements.

$P$, $Q$, $R$ and $S$ appeared in a test.

Question :

Has $P$ scored more marks than $Q$?

Statement-I :

The sum of the marks scored by $P$ and $Q$ is equal to the sum of the marks scored by $R$ and $S$.

Statement-II :

The sum of the marks scored by $P$ and $S$ is more than the sum of the marks scored by $Q$ and $R$.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements?

  1. AThe Question can be answered by using one of the Statements alone, but cannot be answered using the other Statement alone
  2. BThe Question can be answered by using either Statement alone
  3. CThe Question can be answered by using both the Statements together, but cannot be answered using either Statement alone
  4. DThe Question cannot be answered even by using both the Statements together

Correct answer Option D

Explanation

Statement I: $P+Q=R+S$ equates two sums but does not determine whether $P>Q$.

  • $P=10,Q=5,R=8,S=7\Rightarrow$ $P>Q$
  • $P=5,Q=10,R=4,S=11\Rightarrow$ $P

Both keep $P+Q=R+S=15$, so Insufficient. ✗

Statement II: $P+S>Q+R$ also involves $R,S$, so it does not determine whether $P>Q$.

  • $P=10,S=10,Q=5,R=3\Rightarrow$ yes, $P>Q$
  • $P=5,S=10,Q=8,R=3\Rightarrow$ $15>11$ but $P

So Insufficient. ✗

Combined: From I, $R=P+Q-S$. Put into II: $P+S>Q+(P+Q-S)$ $\Rightarrow 2S>2Q\Rightarrow S>Q$. This proves $S>Q$, but does not determine whether $P>Q$.

  • $P=10,Q=5,R=8,S=7$: I, II hold, $P>Q$
  • $P=5,Q=10,R=4,S=11$: I, II hold, $P

Still Insufficient. ✗

Option D

Directions · Question 71Answer the items below based solely on this passage.

Unlike religion and science, poetry does not posit or expect any belief in absolute truths. Those forces or individuals who claim to have absolute truths in their grasp tend to turn dictatorial and tyrannical. Truth usually does not admit any contradictions or imperfections. It is unitarian. It is, therefore, not of much use for poetry. Poetry abides by the plurality of life and existence. Perhaps poetry follows reality which is plural, anachronistic, full of contradictions. Against the tyranny of truth, poetry remains a partisan of democratic reality. Against the arrogance of power, wealth and hierarchy, poetry proposes both humility and defiance.

Question 71 of 80

Comprehension

Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical and rational message conveyed by the above passage?

  1. AIt is the poetry, not science or religion, which recognizes and accepts imperfections in humans.
  2. BTruth is revealed through science or religion and poetry is anathema to truth.
  3. CPoetry is romantic, imaginary and is about feeling whereas science and religion are about truth.
  4. DIn a world of violence, tyranny and bigotry, poetry is a form of dynamic resistance.

Correct answer Option D

Explanation

The passage states that poetry remains a "partisan of democratic reality" against the "tyranny of truth" and proposes "defiance" against the arrogance of power. This directly supports poetry as resistance.

  • Option A: The passage says truth admits no imperfections and poetry accepts plurality; it does not say that only poetry recognizes imperfections in human beings. ✗
  • Option B: It neither says truth is revealed through science or religion nor calls poetry anathema to truth. ✗
  • Option C: It does not describe poetry as romantic, imaginary or merely emotional. ✗
  • Option D: Its central idea—poetry siding with democratic reality and defying tyranny and arrogant power—supports "dynamic resistance." Violence and bigotry are not separately named, but this is still the closest statement of the message. ✓

Option D

Directions · Question 72Answer the items below based solely on this passage.

The flower was not invented to please us. It flaunted its petals and spread its perfume to attract an insect. The insect carries the pollen from flower to flower so that pollen is not carried away by wind and thus not wasted. What we call a flower's beauty is merely a by-product and a human invention. The perfume is not there to please us, it pleases us because it is there and we have been conditioned to it.

Question 72 of 80

Comprehension

Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made :

1. The author of the passage believes that flowers are creations of Nature's luxury.

2. The author of the passage does not believe in the usefulness of flowers except as things of beauty.

Which of the assumptions given above is/are valid?

  1. A1 only
  2. B2 only
  3. CBoth 1 and 2
  4. DNeither 1 nor 2

Correct answer Option D

Explanation

Assumption 1 (Nature’s luxury): Invalid. ✗ The passage says the flower "flaunted its petals... to attract an insect" so pollen "is not wasted" — the passage assigns the flower a useful role rather than describing it as luxury.

Assumption 2 (no usefulness except beauty): Invalid. ✗ This is the opposite of the passage. Beauty is called "merely a by-product and a human invention," while the passage explicitly stresses the useful role of attracting an insect to carry pollen so that it is not wasted.

Both assumptions are unsupported.

Option D

Question 73 of 80

A Question is given followed by two Statements I and II. Consider the Question and the Statements.

Age of each of $P$ and $Q$ is less than 100 years but more than 10 years. If you interchange the digits of the age of $P$, the number represents the age of $Q$.

Question :

What is the difference of their ages?

Statement-I :

The age of $P$ is greater than the age of $Q$.

Statement-II :

The sum of their ages is 11/6 times their difference.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements?

  1. AThe Question can be answered by using one of the Statements alone, but cannot be answered using the other Statement alone
  2. BThe Question can be answered by using either Statement alone
  3. CThe Question can be answered by using both the Statements together, but cannot be answered using either Statement alone
  4. DThe Question cannot be answered even by using both the Statements together

Correct answer Option A

Explanation

Let $P=10a+b$ and $Q=10b+a$. Since both ages exceed 10, $a,b\in\{1,\dots,9\}$. Their age difference is $9|a-b|$.

Statement I: $P>Q$ gives only $a>b$.

  • $21-12=9$
  • $73-37=36$

The difference is not unique. Insufficient. ✗

Statement II:

  • Sum: $P+Q=11(a+b)$
  • Difference: $|P-Q|=9|a-b|$

Substitution gives $2(a+b)=3|a-b|$.

  • If $a>b$, then $a=5b$; the only digit solution is $(a,b)=(5,1)$.
  • If $b>a$, then $b=5a$; the only digit solution is $(a,b)=(1,5)$.

Both cases give ages 51 and 15, so the difference is $36$. Sufficient. ✓

Only Statement II answers the question.

Option A

Question 74 of 80

A Main Statement is followed by four Statements labelled $P$, $Q$, $R$ and $S$. Choose the ordered pair of the Statements where the first Statement implies the second, and the two Statements are logically consistent with the Main Statement.

Main Statement :

Pradeep becomes either a Director or a Producer.

Statement $P$ : Pradeep is a Director.

Statement $Q$ : Pradeep is a Producer.

Statement $R$ : Pradeep is not a Director.

Statement $S$ : Pradeep is not a Producer.

Select the correct answer.

  1. A$SP$ only
  2. B$RQ$ only
  3. CBoth $SP$ and $RQ$
  4. DNeither $SP$ nor $RQ$

Correct answer Option C

Explanation

Main statement: Pradeep is a Director or Producer ($D\lor Pr$).

Pair $SP$: $S=$ "not a Producer" $\Rightarrow$ by $D\lor Pr$, he must be a Director $=P$. So $S\Rightarrow P$, and consistent with the main. ✓

Pair $RQ$: $R=$ "not a Director" $\Rightarrow$ by $D\lor Pr$, he must be a Producer $=Q$. So $R\Rightarrow Q$, consistent with the main. ✓

Both ordered pairs satisfy "first implies second" and agree with the main statement.

Option C

Question 75 of 80

If $a + b$ means $a - b$; $a - b$ means $a \times b$; $a \times b$ means $a \div b$; $a \div b$ means $a + b$, then what is the value of $10 + 30 - 100 \times 50 \div 25$? (Operations are to be replaced simultaneously)

  1. A15
  2. B0
  3. C$-15$
  4. D$-25$

Correct answer Option D

Explanation

Swap operators simultaneously: $+\to-$, $-\to\times$, $\times\to\div$, $\div\to+$.

Expression $10+30-100\times50\div25$ becomes:
$10-30\times100\div50+25$.

Now apply normal BODMAS:

  • $30\times100=3000$
  • $3000\div50=60$
  • $10-60+25=-25$

Option D

Question 76 of 80

If $P$ means 'greater than ($>$)'; $Q$ means 'less than ($<$)'; $R$ means 'not greater than ($\ngtr$)'; $S$ means 'not less than ($\nless$)' and $T$ means 'equal to ($=$)', then consider the following statements :

1. If $2x(S)3y$ and $3x(T)4z$, then $9y(P)8z$.

2. If $x(Q)2y$ and $y(R)z$, then $x(R)z$.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. A1 only
  2. B2 only
  3. CBoth 1 and 2
  4. DNeither 1 nor 2

Correct answer Option D

Explanation

Symbol meanings:

  • $P$: $>$
  • $Q$: $<$
  • $R$: $\le$
  • $S$: $\ge$
  • $T$: $=$

Statement 1: From $3x=4z$, we get $x=\frac{4z}{3}$. Substituting in $2x\ge3y$ gives $8z\ge9y$. Hence $9y\le8z$, so the claim $9y>8z$ is incorrect. ✗

Statement 2: The premises are $x<2y$ and $y\le z$.

  • Take $y=10$ and $z=10$.
  • Take $x=15$; then $x<2y$ is true.
  • But $x>z$, so $x\le z$ is false.

Statement 2 is incorrect. ✗

Neither statement is correct.

Option D

Question 77 of 80

If in a certain code, 'ABCD' is written as 24 and 'EFGH' is written as 1680, then how is 'IJKL' written in that code?

  1. A11880
  2. B11240
  3. C7920
  4. D5940

Correct answer Option A

Explanation

Each letter takes its alphabet position; multiply the four values.

  • $ABCD=1\times2\times3\times4=24$ ✓
  • $EFGH=5\times6\times7\times8=1680$ ✓

So $IJKL=9\times10\times11\times12$:

  • $9\times10=90$
  • $90\times11=990$
  • $990\times12=11880$

Option A

Question 78 of 80

If in a certain code, 'POT' is written as ATOP and 'TRAP' is written as APART, then how is 'ARENA' written in that code?

  1. AAARENA
  2. BAANREA
  3. CAANEAR
  4. DAANERA

Correct answer Option D

Explanation

Rule: reverse the word, then prefix the letter A.

  • $POT\to TOP\to ATOP$ ✓
  • $TRAP\to PART\to APART$ ✓

For $ARENA$, the reverse is $ANERA$; prefixing $A$ gives $AANERA$.

  • Option A: $AARENA$ is not reversed. ✗
  • Option B: $AANREA$ has the wrong internal order. ✗
  • Option C: $AANEAR$ has the wrong internal order. ✗
  • Option D: $AANERA$ follows the rule. ✓

Option D

Question 79 of 80

What will come in place of $*$ in the sequence 3, 14, 39, 84, $*$, 258?

  1. A150
  2. B155
  3. C160
  4. D176

Correct answer Option B

Explanation

Look at the differences of consecutive terms:

  • $14-3=11$
  • $39-14=25$
  • $84-39=45$

Second differences: $25-11=14$, $45-25=20$ — rising by $6$ each time ($14,20,26,32,\dots$).

So the next first difference $=45+26=71\Rightarrow *=84+71=155$.

Check: next second diff $32\Rightarrow$ diff $71+32=103\Rightarrow 155+103=258$ ✓.

Option B

Question 80 of 80

In some code, letters P, Q, R, S, T represent numbers 4, 5, 10, 12, 15. It is not known which letter represents which number. If $Q - S = 2S$ and $T = R + S + 3$, then what is the value of $P + R - T$?

  1. A1
  2. B2
  3. C3
  4. DCannot be determined due to insufficient data

Correct answer Option B

Explanation

Values: $\{4,5,10,12,15\}$.

From $Q-S=2S$, we get $Q=3S$. There are two candidates:

  • $S=4$ and $Q=12$
  • $S=5$ and $Q=15$

Now use $T=R+S+3$.

  • If $S=4$, then $T=R+7$. No assignment from the remaining values $\{5,10,15\}$ satisfies this. ✗
  • If $S=5$, then $T=R+8$. Taking $R=4$ gives $T=12$, both available. ✓

Thus $Q=15$, $S=5$, $R=4$ and $T=12$; the remaining value is $P=10$.

$P+R-T=10+4-12=2$.

Option B

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