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UPSC Prelims 2025 CSAT (Paper II · Set A)

All 80 questions of UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2025 CSAT (Paper II · Set A) with the official answer key and detailed explanations, in English.

  • 80 questions
  • 120 minutes
  • Paper II · Set A
  • English
Directions · Questions 1–2Answer the items below based solely on this passage.

Maintaining an ecosystem just to conserve biodiversity will affect its commercial potential as well as the livelihoods dependent on the ecosystem. There is also a conflict between using an ecosystem only for livelihoods, for commercial exploitation, or strictly for conservation. Deforestation caused due to commercial exploitation will lead to indirect harm like floods, siltation problems and microclimatic instability, apart from adversely affecting livelihoods dependent on forests. These conflicts are particularly acute in developing countries where the dependence of people on the ecosystem is significant, and commercial exploitation has the potential to boost national income.

Question 1 of 80

Comprehension

Which one of the following statements best reflects the critical message conveyed by the author of the passage?

  1. AConservation of biodiversity is not an issue to be worried about when some people depend on ecosystems for their livelihoods.
  2. BCommercial exploitation of forests goes against the fundamental rights of the people dependent on forests for food and shelter.
  3. CSustenance of livelihood and degradation of ecosystem while being together exacerbate one another, leading to conflicts and imbalance.
  4. DCommercial exploitation of ecosystems should be completely stopped.

Correct answer Option C

Explanation

The passage frames a three-way conflict: conservation vs. livelihoods vs. commercial exploitation, and notes that deforestation harms both livelihoods and the environment ("floods, siltation problems and microclimatic instability").

  • Option A: Passage stresses biodiversity matters; it never says concern can be dropped. ✗
  • Option B: Passage does not invoke any "fundamental rights" framework. ✗
  • Option C: Captures that livelihood pressure and ecosystem degradation reinforce each other, producing the very conflicts the passage describes. ✓
  • Option D: Passage never calls for a complete stop; it only flags trade-offs. ✗

Option C

Question 2 of 80

Comprehension

With reference to above passage, the following assumptions have been made:

I. No country needs to depend on ecosystems to boost national income.

II. Resource-rich countries need to share their resources with those of scant resources so as to prevent the degradation of ecosystems.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

  1. AI only
  2. BII only
  3. CBoth I and II
  4. DNeither I nor II

Correct answer Option D

Explanation
  • Assumption I: Passage explicitly says commercial exploitation "has the potential to boost national income" — i.e., countries DO rely on ecosystems for income. Contradicts I. ✗
  • Assumption II: Passage says nothing about inter-country resource-sharing. No basis. ✗

Neither assumption is supported.

Option D

Directions · Questions 3–4Answer the items below based solely on this passage.

The history of renewable energy suggests there is a steep learning curve, meaning that, as more is produced, costs fall rapidly because of economies of scale and learning by doing. The firms' green innovation is path-dependent : the more a firm does, the more it is likely to do in the future. The strongest evidence for this is the collapse in the price of solar energy, which became about 90% cheaper during the 2010s, repeatedly beating forecasts. Moving early and gradually gives economies more time to adjust, allowing them to reap the benefits of path-dependent green investment without much disruption. A late, more chaotic transition is costlier.

Question 3 of 80

Comprehension

Which one of the following statements best reflects the central idea of the passage?

  1. AEconomies of scale is essential for transition to green growth.
  2. BModern technological progress is intensely linked to path-dependent innovations.
  3. CCountries with large economies are in a better position to adopt green technologies.
  4. DTiming plays a crucial role in the case of green technology development.

Correct answer Option D

Explanation

Passage's punchline: "Moving early and gradually... A late, more chaotic transition is costlier." Timing is the central thread.

  • Option A: Economies of scale are a mechanism, not the central message. ✗
  • Option B: Too general; passage is specifically about green/renewable tech, not all modern tech. ✗
  • Option C: Passage never compares large vs. small economies. ✗
  • Option D: Captures the early-vs-late timing argument directly. ✓

Option D

Question 4 of 80

Comprehension

With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:

I. Path-dependent green investments will eventually most likely benefit growth as well as public finances in a country like India.

II. If other green technologies follow the same pattern as that of solar energy, there will most likely be an easy green transition.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

  1. AI only
  2. BII only
  3. CBoth I and II
  4. DNeither I nor II

Correct answer Option C

Explanation
  • Assumption I: Passage states early path-dependent investment lets economies grow "without much disruption" while a late transition is costlier — implying timely action helps growth and avoids fiscal burden. Reasonable for a developing economy like India. ✓
  • Assumption II: Passage uses solar as the "strongest evidence" of the falling-cost path-dependent pattern. If others replicate that pattern, an easier transition follows directly. ✓

Option C

Question 5 of 80

A natural number N is such that it can be expressed as $N = p + q + r$, where $p$, $q$ and $r$ are distinct factors of N. How many numbers below 50 have this property?

  1. A6
  2. B7
  3. C8
  4. D9

Correct answer Option C

Explanation

Let the three factors be $N/a$, $N/b$, $N/c$. Then $1/a+1/b+1/c=1$, with $a,b,c$ distinct divisors of $N$.

The positive integer solutions of this reciprocal equation are:

  • $(3,3,3)$
  • $(2,4,4)$
  • $(2,3,6)$

Only $(2,3,6)$ gives three distinct factors. Hence $N$ must be divisible by $6$.

Multiples of $6$ below $50$ are:

  • $6,12,18,24$
  • $30,36,42,48$

Each works by using $N/2$, $N/3$, and $N/6$.

Total $=8$.

Option C

Question 6 of 80

Three prime numbers $p$, $q$ and $r$, each less than 20, are such that $p - q = q - r$. How many distinct possible values can we get for $(p + q + r)$?

  1. A4
  2. B5
  3. C6
  4. DMore than 6

Correct answer Option D

Explanation

$p-q=q-r \Rightarrow p+r=2q$ (AP with middle term $q$). Sum $=p+q+r=3q$. Primes $<20$: $\{2,3,5,7,11,13,17,19\}$.

For each prime $q$, check if some valid $(p,r)$ exists (including $p=q=r$):

  • $q=2 \Rightarrow$ sum $=6$
  • $q=3 \Rightarrow$ sum $=9$
  • $q=5$: $(3,5,7)$ ✓ sum $=15$
  • $q=7$: $(3,7,11)$ ✓ sum $=21$
  • $q=11$: $(3,11,19),(5,11,17)$ ✓ sum $=33$
  • $q=13$: $(7,13,19)$ ✓ sum $=39$
  • $q=17 \Rightarrow$ sum $=51$
  • $q=19 \Rightarrow$ sum $=57$

Distinct sums: $\{6,9,15,21,33,39,51,57\}=8$ values, which is more than 6.

Option D

Question 7 of 80

How many possible values of $(p + q + r)$ are there satisfying $\frac{1}{p} + \frac{1}{q} + \frac{1}{r} = 1$, where $p$, $q$ and $r$ are natural numbers (not necessarily distinct)?

  1. ANone
  2. BOne
  3. CThree
  4. DMore than three

Correct answer Option C

Explanation

Assume $p \le q \le r$.

  • $p=1$ is impossible, because the first term is already $1$.
  • Since $3/p \ge 1$, we get $p \le 3$.

So $p=2$ or $p=3$.

Case $p=3$:

  • Need $1/q+1/r=2/3$.
  • With $q,r \ge 3$, only $q=r=3$.
  • Sum $=9$.

Case $p=2$:

  • Need $1/q+1/r=1/2$.
  • $q=3 \Rightarrow r=6$, sum $=11$.
  • $q=4 \Rightarrow r=4$, sum $=10$.
  • For $q \ge 5$, the left side is too small.

Distinct sums are $9,10,11$.

Option C

Question 8 of 80

What comes at X and Y respectively in the following sequence?

January, January, December, October, X, March, October, Y, September

  1. AJuly, May
  2. BJuly, April
  3. CJune, May
  4. DJune, April

Correct answer Option B

Explanation

Successive backward gaps grow by $1$ each step: $0,1,2,3,4,5,6,7$ months back.

  • Jan $\to$ Jan: $-0$ ✓
  • Jan $\to$ Dec: $-1$ ✓
  • Dec $\to$ Oct: $-2$ ✓
  • Oct $\to$ X: $-3 \Rightarrow$ X $=$ July
  • July $\to$ Mar: $-4$ ✓
  • Mar $\to$ Oct: $-5$ ✓ (Feb, Jan, Dec, Nov, Oct)
  • Oct $\to$ Y: $-6 \Rightarrow$ Y $=$ April
  • Apr $\to$ Sep: $-7$ ✓

Option B

Question 9 of 80

Team X scored a total of N runs in 20 overs. Team Y tied the score in 10% less overs. Had team Y's average run rate (runs per over) been 50% higher, the scores would have been tied in 12 overs. How many runs were scored by team X?

  1. A72
  2. B144
  3. C216
  4. DCannot be determined

Correct answer Option D

Explanation

Y tied in $20\times0.9=18$ overs, so Y's actual rate is $N/18$.

If the rate were $50\%$ higher:

  • new rate $=1.5\times N/18$
  • new rate $=N/12$

Runs in $12$ overs at this rate are $N$. This is true for every $N$.

The second condition is an identity; it gives no fixed value of $N$.

Option D

Question 10 of 80

The price (p) of a commodity is first increased by k%; then decreased by k%; again increased by k%; and again decreased by k%. If the new price is q, then what is the relation between p and q?

  1. A$p(10^4 - k^2)^2 = q \times 10^8$
  2. B$p(10^4 - k^2)^2 = q \times 10^4$
  3. C$p(10^4 - k^2) = q \times 10^4$
  4. D$p(10^4 - k^2) = q \times 10^8$

Correct answer Option A

Explanation

One increase-decrease cycle has multiplier:

  • $(100+k)(100-k)/10^4$
  • $(10^4-k^2)/10^4$

There are two such cycles, so:

  • divide $q$ by $p$
  • square the above multiplier

After multiplying by $10^8$, the equality is:

  • left side: $p(10^4-k^2)^2$
  • right side: $q\times10^8$

This is exactly option A.

Option A

Directions · Questions 11–12Answer the items below based solely on this passage.

Each State in India faces a distinctive set of challenges regarding the impact of warming, but also offers its own set of opportunities for reducing emissions depending on its natural resources. For example, coastal States need to take action to protect their shores from sea level rise, districts that are drier need to prepare for variable monsoon precipitation. Himalayan regions have their own unique challenges, and selected parts of peninsular India and offshore areas offer great opportunities for harnessing wind power. These various aspects need to be considered for developing clear and sustainable goals for the future.

Question 11 of 80

Comprehension

Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical, rational and pragmatic message conveyed by the author of the passage?

  1. AThe mitigation and adaptation strategies to address/tackle the climate change is essentially the responsibility of each State.
  2. BIndia is too diverse to implement any effective strategy or programme to address/tackle the climate change.
  3. CIt is basically the responsibility of the Union Government to implement the climate action plans and ensure net zero emissions.
  4. DIndia needs to formulate effective climate change mitigation and adaptation strategies at the State/region level.

Correct answer Option D

Explanation

Passage lists state-specific challenges (coastal, drier districts, Himalayan, peninsular) and concludes "these various aspects need to be considered for developing clear and sustainable goals."

  • Option A: "essentially" the State's responsibility — passage doesn't say only States; too narrow. ✗
  • Option B: Passage offers a constructive way forward, not pessimism. ✗
  • Option C: Passage doesn't single out the Union Government. ✗
  • Option D: Calls for state/region-level strategies — exactly what passage urges. ✓

Option D

Question 12 of 80

Comprehension

With reference to the passage, the following assumptions have been made:

I. Green energy production can be linked to/integrated with the climate change mitigation and adaptation strategies.

II. Effects of climate change are much more severe in coastal and mountainous regions.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

  1. AI only
  2. BII only
  3. CBoth I and II
  4. DNeither I nor II

Correct answer Option A

Explanation
  • Assumption I: Passage cites wind power (green energy) as an opportunity "for reducing emissions" — directly linking green energy to mitigation. Valid. ✓
  • Assumption II: Passage lists challenges in coastal, drier and Himalayan regions equally — never says coastal/mountain effects are "much more severe." Invalid. ✗

Option A

Directions · Questions 13–14Answer the items below based solely on this passage.

If the social inequality is the most acutely felt social problem in India, insecurity, more than poverty, is the most acutely felt economic problem. Besides those below the official poverty line, even those just over the poverty line are subject to multiple economic insecurities of various kinds (due to wealth and/or health risks, market fluctuations, job-related uncertainties). Many Government policies are actually intended towards mitigating these insecurities.

Question 13 of 80

Comprehension

Which one of the following statements best reflects the critical message conveyed by the passage?

  1. AIndia's political executive should be aware that poverty and social inequality and the consequent sense of insecurity is the main social problem.
  2. BIn India, poverty is the primary reason for social inequality and insecurity.
  3. CPoverty and social inequality are so intricately linked that they pose an unmanageable crisis for India.
  4. DInsecurity, more than poverty, is the main economic issue that Government policies must address.

Correct answer Option D

Explanation

Passage's key sentence: "insecurity, more than poverty, is the most acutely felt economic problem" and "Government policies are actually intended towards mitigating these insecurities."

  • Option A: Conflates social inequality with the economic problem; passage keeps them separate. ✗
  • Option B: Passage says insecurity is felt MORE than poverty, not that poverty is the cause. ✗
  • Option C: "unmanageable" contradicts passage's mention of policies that address it. ✗
  • Option D: Mirrors passage almost verbatim. ✓

Option D

Question 14 of 80

Comprehension

With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:

I. People above the poverty line also are prone to suffer from anxiety about economic insecurity.

II. Eradication of poverty can result in peace and social equality in the country.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

  1. AI only
  2. BII only
  3. CBoth I and II
  4. DNeither I nor II

Correct answer Option A

Explanation
  • Assumption I: Passage states "even those just over the poverty line are subject to multiple economic insecurities." Directly supports I. ✓
  • Assumption II: Passage keeps social inequality and economic insecurity as separate problems and never claims eradicating poverty brings social equality. Invalid. ✗

Option A

Question 15 of 80

A solid cube is painted yellow on all its faces. The cube is then cut into 60 smaller but equal pieces by making the minimum number of cuts. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

I. The minimum number of cuts is 9.

II. The number of smaller pieces which are not painted on any face is 6.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. AI only
  2. BII only
  3. CBoth I and II
  4. DNeither I nor II

Correct answer Option C

Explanation

If the cube is cut into $a\times b\times c$ equal cuboids, the number of cuts is $a+b+c-3$.

For $abc=60$, the closest factor split gives the fewest cuts:

  • $3\times4\times5=60$
  • cuts $=3+4+5-3=9$

Other unordered splits give larger sums, e.g. $2\times5\times6$ gives $10$ cuts.

Statement I: $9$ cuts, so it is correct. ✓

Unpainted pieces are strictly internal:

  • count $=(3-2)(4-2)(5-2)$
  • count $=1\times2\times3=6$

Statement II: $6$ unpainted pieces, so it is correct. ✓

Option C

Question 16 of 80

If $7 * 24 = 25$ and $12 * 16 = 20$, then what is $16 * 63$ equal to?

  1. A70
  2. B66
  3. C65
  4. D64

Correct answer Option C

Explanation

Pattern: $a*b=\sqrt{a^2+b^2}$, using Pythagorean triples.

  • $7^2+24^2=625=25^2$ ✓
  • $12^2+16^2=400=20^2$ ✓
  • $16^2+63^2=4225=65^2$ ✓

Therefore $16*63=65$.

Option C

Question 17 of 80

The petrol price shot up by 10% as a result of the hike in crude oil prices. The price of petrol before the hike was ₹ 90 per litre. A person travels 2200 km every month and his car gives a mileage of 16 km per litre. By how many km should he reduce his travel if he wants to maintain his expenditure at the previous level?

  1. A180 km
  2. B200 km
  3. C220 km
  4. D240 km

Correct answer Option B

Explanation

Old monthly fuel: $2200/16 = 137.5$ L.

Old cost: $137.5 \times 90 = ₹12{,}375$.

New price: $90 \times 1.10 = ₹99$/L.

New fuel at same cost: $12{,}375 / 99 = 125$ L.

New distance: $125 \times 16 = 2000$ km.

Reduction: $2200 - 2000 = 200$ km.

Option B

Question 18 of 80

A 4-digit number N is such that when divided by 3, 5, 6, 9 leaves a remainder 1, 3, 4, 7 respectively. What is the smallest value of N?

  1. A1068
  2. B1072
  3. C1078
  4. D1082

Correct answer Option C

Explanation

In every case, divisor minus remainder is $2$:

  • $3-1=2$
  • $5-3=2$
  • $6-4=2$
  • $9-7=2$

So $N+2$ is divisible by $3,5,6,9$, hence by $90$.

For the smallest 4-digit $N$:

  • $N+2\ge1002$
  • $90\times11=990$ is too small
  • $90\times12=1080$ works

Thus $N=1080-2=1078$.

Option C

Question 19 of 80

Consider the following statements:

I.
If $A \leq B > C < D > E > F \geq G = H$; then B is always greater than E.

II.
If $P > Q = R \geq S = T \leq U = V > W$; then S is always less than V.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. AI only
  2. BII only
  3. CBoth I and II
  4. DNeither I nor II

Correct answer Option D

Explanation

Statement I: There is no fixed order between $B$ and $E$.

Counter-example:

  • $A=1,B=2,C=1$
  • $D=10,E=5,F=4$
  • $G=H=3$

This satisfies the whole chain, but $B

Statement II: From $S=T\le U=V$, we get only $S\le V$. Equality is possible.

Counter-example:

  • $P=6,Q=R=5$
  • $S=T=4,U=V=4$
  • $W=3$

This satisfies the whole chain, but $S=V$, not $S

Option D

Question 20 of 80

What is the unit digit in the multiplication of
$1 \times 3 \times 5 \times 7 \times 9 \times \ldots \times 999$?

  1. A1
  2. B3
  3. C5
  4. D9

Correct answer Option C

Explanation

Product of odd numbers $1,3,5,\ldots,999$.

  • Contains $5$ as a factor (also $15, 25, \ldots$) — divisible by $5$.
  • All factors are odd — no factor of $2$.

So the product is odd and divisible by $5$ $\Rightarrow$ unit digit $=5$.

Quick check: $1 \times 3 \times 5 = 15$ (ends in 5); $15 \times 7 = 105$ (ends in 5); any odd $\times 5 \to$ ends in 5.

Option C

Directions · Questions 21–22Answer the items below based solely on this passage.

One of the dismal realities of the agricultural sector in independent India has been that it never experienced a high-growth phase, unlike the non-agricultural economy. The highest decadal growth (compound annual growth rate or CAGR) for agriculture has been just $3 \cdot 5\%$ in the 1980s. Also, after experiencing a spurt in decadal growth during the 1980s, agricultural growth suffered relative stagnation thereafter. This is in sharp contrast to non-agricultural growth, which consistently increased from the 1980s to 2000s.

Question 21 of 80

Comprehension

Which one of the following statements best reflects the corollary to the above passage?

  1. AThe benefit of economic reforms percolates down more slowly to the agriculture sector than in other sectors of the economy.
  2. BFor India, the green revolution was not as useful as it was expected to be.
  3. CIndia lagged behind other countries in adapting mechanized and modern farming.
  4. DRural-to-urban migration resulted in the stagnant agriculture sector.

Correct answer Option A

Explanation

The passage says agriculture never had a high-growth phase, reached only $3.5\%$ CAGR in the 1980s, and then stagnated. In contrast, non-agricultural growth consistently increased from the 1980s to the 2000s.

  • Option A: Closest corollary: economy-wide gains reached agriculture more slowly than other sectors. ✓
  • Option B: Green revolution is not mentioned. ✗
  • Option C: No comparison with other countries is made. ✗
  • Option D: Rural-to-urban migration is not mentioned. ✗

Caveat: the passage does not explicitly use the phrase "economic reforms"; A is still the best available option.

Option A

Question 22 of 80

Comprehension

With reference to the passage, the following assumptions have been made:

The growing divergence between the fortunes of the agricultural and non-agricultural economy in India could have been reduced/contained by:

I. adapting large-scale cultivation of commercial crops and viable corporate farming.

II. providing free insurance for all crops and heavily subsidizing seeds, fertilizers, electricity and farm machinery at par with developed countries.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

  1. AI only
  2. BII only
  3. CBoth I and II
  4. DNeither I nor II

Correct answer Option D

Explanation

Passage only describes the divergence — it never proposes or hints at any specific remedy.

  • Assumption I: Commercial crops / corporate farming — not mentioned. ✗
  • Assumption II: Free insurance / heavy subsidies — not mentioned. ✗

Neither can be validly drawn from the passage.

Option D

Directions · Questions 23–24Answer the items below based solely on this passage.

In our country, handlooms are equated with a culture that ensures a continuity of tradition. This idea has become part of the public policy-framing and provides a legitimate basis for the State to support the sector. But the notion of tradition as a single, linear entity is being strongly contested today. The narratives dominant in defining culture/tradition in a particular way are seen to have emerged as the identities and histories of large sections. The discounted and, at times, forcibly stifled identities are fighting for their rightful place in history. Against this backdrop, when we promote handloom as a traditional industry, it is not surprising that large sections of our population choose to ignore it.

Question 23 of 80

Comprehension

Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical and rational message conveyed by the author of the passage?

  1. AWe need to free the handloom industry from the limited narrative linked to preserving cultural heritage.
  2. BContinued State support to the handloom industry ensures the preservation of some of our glorious art forms and old traditions.
  3. CHousehold units of the handloom sector should be modernized and made an economically viable organized industry.
  4. DHandloom products need to be converted to machine-made designer products so as to make them more popular.

Correct answer Option A

Explanation

Passage argues the "single, linear" tradition narrative is contested; promoting handloom only as traditional makes large sections "choose to ignore it."

  • Option A: Free handloom from the narrow tradition-only framing — matches the passage's diagnosis. ✓
  • Option B: Passage challenges the tradition basis of State support, doesn't endorse it. ✗
  • Option C: Modernization into organized industry — not the passage's argument. ✗
  • Option D: Machine-made conversion contradicts the very idea of handloom. ✗

Option A

Question 24 of 80

Comprehension

With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:

I. There is no need for the State to be involved in any manner in the handloom sector.

II. Handloom products are no longer appealing and attractive in the rapidly changing modern world.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

  1. AI only
  2. BII only
  3. CBoth I and II
  4. DNeither I nor II

Correct answer Option D

Explanation
  • Assumption I: Passage questions the *basis* of State support (single tradition narrative), not State involvement per se. Doesn't say State should withdraw entirely. ✗
  • Assumption II: Passage attributes the ignoring to the framing/narrative, not to the products being unappealing. ✗

Neither valid.

Option D

Question 25 of 80

Consider the first 100 natural numbers. How many of them are not divisible by any one of 2, 3, 5, 7 and 9?

  1. A20
  2. B21
  3. C22
  4. D23

Correct answer Option C

Explanation

Anything divisible by $9$ is divisible by $3$, so dropping $9$ doesn't change the set. Count those NOT divisible by $2, 3, 5, 7$ in $1$–$100$.

Inclusion–exclusion ($|.|$ = count in $1$–$100$):

  • Singles: $50+33+20+14 = 117$
  • Pairs ($6,10,14,15,21,35$): $16+10+7+6+4+2 = 45$
  • Triples ($30,42,70,105$): $3+2+1+0 = 6$
  • Quadruple ($210$): $0$

Divisible by at least one: $117 - 45 + 6 - 0 = 78$.

Not divisible: $100 - 78 = 22$.

Option C

Question 26 of 80

If $4 \leq x \leq 8$ and $2 \leq y \leq 7$, then what is the ratio of maximum value of $(x + y)$ to minimum value of $(x - y)$?

  1. A6
  2. B$\frac{15}{2}$
  3. C$-\frac{15}{2}$
  4. DNone of the above

Correct answer Option D

Explanation

Maximum value of $x+y$ is $8+7=15$.

Minimum value of $x-y$ is $4-7=-3$.

So the required ratio is $15/(-3)=-5$.

The listed numerical options are $6$, $15/2$, and $-15/2$. None equals $-5$.

Option D

Question 27 of 80

Let both p and k be prime numbers such that $(p^2 + k)$ is also a prime number less than 30. What is the number of possible values of k?

  1. A4
  2. B5
  3. C6
  4. D7

Correct answer Option B

Explanation

Need $p^2+k$ to be prime and less than $30$.

Case $p=2$:

  • $p^2=4$, so $k<26$.
  • $k=3,7,13,19$ give $7,11,17,23$. ✓
  • $k=5,11,17,23$ give $9,15,21,27$, all composite. ✗

Case $p=3$:

  • $p^2=9$, so $k<21$.
  • $k=2$ gives $11$. ✓
  • Other possible prime $k$ values are odd, so $9+k$ is even and greater than $2$. ✗

Case $p=5$:

  • $k=2$ gives $27$. ✗
  • $k=3$ gives $28$. ✗

For $p\ge7$, $p^2>30$.

Distinct $k$ values are $2,3,7,13,19$. Total $=5$.

Option B

Question 28 of 80

There are n sets of numbers each having only three positive integers with LCM equal to 1001 and HCF equal to 1. What is the value of n?

  1. A6
  2. B7
  3. C8
  4. DMore than 8

Correct answer Option D

Explanation

$1001 = 7 \times 11 \times 13$. Each element is a divisor of $1001$, so it corresponds to a subset of $\{7,11,13\}$ — $8$ divisors total.

For a 3-element set:

  • $\mathrm{LCM}=1001$: union of subsets $= \{7,11,13\}$
  • $\mathrm{HCF}=1$: intersection of subsets $= \emptyset$

Total 3-subsets of 8 divisors: $\binom{8}{3} = 56$.

Bad subsets (for each prime, all 3 lack it OR all 3 contain it):

  • All 3 lack prime $i$: $\binom{4}{3} = 4$ ways; $3$ primes $\Rightarrow 12$.
  • All 3 contain prime $i$: $4$ ways; $3$ primes $\Rightarrow 12$.
  • Pairwise overlaps: choose 3 from 2 codes $= 0$.

Bad $= 24$; Good $= 56 - 24 = 32 > 8$.

Option D

Question 29 of 80

Let PQR be a 3-digit number, PPT be a 3-digit number and PS be a 2-digit number, where P, Q, R, S, T are distinct non-zero digits. Further, $PQR - PS = PPT$. If $Q = 3$ and $T < 6$, then what is the number of possible values of $(R, S)$?

  1. A2
  2. B3
  3. C4
  4. DMore than 4

Correct answer Option B

Explanation

Write the numbers as:

  • $PQR=100P+30+R$
  • $PS=10P+S$
  • $PPT=110P+T$

Using $PQR-PS=PPT$ gives:

  • $R-S=20P+T-30$

Case $P=1$: Then $R-S=T-10$, with $T=2,4,5$.

  • $T=2$: only $(R,S)=(1,9)$, but $R=P$. ✗
  • $T=4$: valid pair $(2,8)$. ✓
  • $T=5$: valid pairs $(2,7)$ and $(4,9)$. ✓

Case $P\ge2$: Since $T\ge1$, $R-S\ge11$, impossible for digits.

Valid $(R,S)$ pairs are $(2,8)$, $(2,7)$, and $(4,9)$. Total $=3$.

Option B

Question 30 of 80

Consider the sequence AB_CC_A_BCCC_BBC_C that follows a certain pattern. Which one of the following completes the sequence?

  1. AB, C, B, C, A
  2. BA, C, B, C, A
  3. CB, C, B, A, C
  4. DC, B, B, A, C

Correct answer Option C

Explanation

Try the period ABBCCC (length 6) repeated three times $\to$ total 18 chars.

Lay out vs. given (blanks shown as `_`):

  • Block 1 (1–6): A B B C C C $\to$ given A B _ C C _ $\to$ blanks at $3, 6$ = B, C
  • Block 2 (7–12): A B B C C C $\to$ given A _ B C C C $\to$ blank at $8$ = B
  • Block 3 (13–18): A B B C C C $\to$ given _ B B C _ C $\to$ blanks at $13, 17$ = A, C

Fills in order: B, C, B, A, C.

Option C

Directions · Questions 31–32Answer the items below based solely on this passage.

In our country, regrettably, teaching and learning for the examination have been our forte but the new demands of society and the future of work require critical and independent thinking, learning through doing, asking questions from multiple disciplinary perspectives on the same issue, using evidence for building arguments, and reflecting and articulation. Higher education should not "either be a mere servant of the government policy or a passive respondent to public mood." Higher learning is all about how to think rather than what to think. Teaching has to be re-invented.

Question 31 of 80

Comprehension

Which one of the following statements best reflects the central idea conveyed by the passage?

  1. AIndia does not have enough resources for promoting quality education in its universities.
  2. BThe institutions of higher learning in the country should not be under the control of the Government.
  3. CClassroom approach to higher education should be done away with.
  4. DClassroom needs to be reimagined and teaching needs to be re-invented.

Correct answer Option D

Explanation

Passage's closing line: "Teaching has to be re-invented" — capping a call for new modes (critical thinking, learning by doing, etc.).

  • Option A: Resources/funds not mentioned. ✗
  • Option B: Passage warns against being a "servant of govt policy" but doesn't demand institutions be outside Government control. ✗
  • Option C: "Done away with classroom" too extreme; passage urges reinvention, not abolition. ✗
  • Option D: Matches "teaching has to be re-invented" directly. ✓

Option D

Question 32 of 80

Comprehension

With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:

I. Higher education is a constantly evolving subject that needs to align towards new developments in all spheres of society.

II. In our country, sufficient funds are not allocated for promoting higher education.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

  1. AI only
  2. BII only
  3. CBoth I and II
  4. DNeither I nor II

Correct answer Option A

Explanation
  • Assumption I: Passage says "new demands of society and the future of work require..." — higher education must align with new developments. Valid. ✓
  • Assumption II: Funds/allocation never mentioned. Invalid. ✗

Option A

Directions · Questions 33–34Answer the items below based solely on this passage.

If there is inequality in the pattern of population growth, there is greater inequality in food production and utilization. As societies become wealthier, their consumption of animal products increases. This means that a greater proportion of such basic foodstuff as grains and legumes that could feed humans directly is instead being converted into feed for poultry and large farm animals. Yet this conversion of plant-based food into animal food for humans is far from efficient. Only 16% of the calories fed to chickens are recovered by us when we eat them. This conversion rate goes down to five to seven per cent in large animals that are fed grain to add fat and some protein before slaughter.

Question 33 of 80

Comprehension

Which one of the following statements best reflects the crux of the passage?

  1. AThere is an urgent need for a public policy to promote the consumption of cereal-based foods in wealthier societies.
  2. BAnimal-based food is far less efficient than grain/plant-based food in terms of production and utilization.
  3. CPlant-based protein should replace the animal-based protein in our daily diets.
  4. DInequality in food production and consumption is inevitable in any fast changing society.

Correct answer Option B

Explanation

The passage's central thrust is the inefficiency of plant-to-animal food conversion.

  • Passage: only $16\%$ of calories fed to chickens are recovered; $5$–$7\%$ for large animals — direct evidence of low efficiency.
  • Option A ✗ — the passage doesn't call for any public policy.
  • Option B ✓ — directly mirrors the calorie-recovery data: animal-based food is far less efficient than plant-based.
  • Option C ✗ — no recommendation to replace animal protein in diets.
  • Option D ✗ — passage notes inequality exists, but never calls it *inevitable*.

Option B

Question 34 of 80

Comprehension

With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:

I. The food manufacturing and processing industries in every country should align their objectives and processes in accordance with the changing needs of the societies.

II. Wealthier societies tend to incur great loss of calories of food materials due to indirect utilization of their agricultural produce.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

  1. AI only
  2. BII only
  3. CBoth I and II
  4. DNeither I nor II

Correct answer Option B

Explanation

Assumption I: Food industries must align with changing societal needs.

  • The passage describes inefficiency; it makes no prescription for what industries *should* do. Invalid.

Assumption II: Wealthier societies lose calories via indirect (animal-mediated) use of grain.

  • Passage: wealthier societies feed grain to animals; only $5$–$16\%$ of those calories return as food. This is the indirect-utilization loss. Valid.

Option B

Question 35 of 80

What is the maximum value of n such that $7 \times 343 \times 385 \times 1000 \times 2401 \times 77777$ is divisible by $35^n$?

  1. A3
  2. B4
  3. C5
  4. D7

Correct answer Option B

Explanation

Since $35=5\times7$, each factor of $35$ needs one $5$ and one $7$.

Factorize the product:

  • $7=7^1$
  • $343=7^3$
  • $385=5\times7\times11$
  • $1000=2^3\times5^3$
  • $2401=7^4$
  • $77777=7\times11111$

Powers of 7: $1+3+1+0+4+1=10$

Powers of 5: $0+0+1+3+0+0=4$

The smaller count is $4$, so the product is divisible by $35^4$ but not by $35^5$.

Option B

Question 36 of 80

What is X in the sequence 24, X, 12, 18, 36, 90?

  1. A18
  2. B12
  3. C9
  4. D6

Correct answer Option B

Explanation

Look at successive ratios (each term ÷ previous):

  • $18/12 = 1.5$
  • $36/18 = 2$
  • $90/36 = 2.5$

Ratios form an AP with common difference $0.5$. Extending backwards:

  • $12/X = 1.0 \Rightarrow X = 12$
  • $X/24 = 0.5 \Rightarrow X = 12$ ✓

Both checks give the same value, confirming $X = 12$.

Option B

Question 37 of 80

P and Q walk along a circular track. They start at 5:00 a.m. from the same point in opposite directions. P walks at an average speed of 5 rounds per hour and Q walks at an average speed of 3 rounds per hour. How many times will they cross each other between 5:20 a.m. and 7:00 a.m.?

  1. A12
  2. B13
  3. C14
  4. D15

Correct answer Option B

Explanation

Opposite directions on a circular track give relative speed $5+3=8$ rounds/hr.

So they meet every $1/8$ hr, i.e. every $7.5$ minutes after 5:00 a.m.

Meeting times after 5:00 are:

  • $7.5$, $15$, $22.5$, $30$, $37.5$, $45$
  • $52.5$, $60$, $67.5$, $75$, $82.5$
  • $90$, $97.5$, $105$, $112.5$, $120$

The question says between 5:20 a.m. and 7:00 a.m.; under the strict endpoint reading, 7:00 a.m. is not counted. Thus the valid meetings are from $22.5$ to $112.5$ minutes.

Count $=13$.

Option B

Question 38 of 80

If $P = +, Q = -, R = \times, S = \div$, then insert the proper notations between the successive numbers in the equation $60\_15\_3\_20\_4 = 20$:

  1. ASPRQ
  2. BQRPS
  3. CQRSP
  4. DSPQR

Correct answer Option B

Explanation

Test each option using BODMAS:

  • A (SPRQ): $60\div15+3\times20-4$ = $4+60-4=60$ ✗
  • B (QRPS): $60-15\times3+20\div4$ = $60-45+5=20$ ✓
  • C (QRSP): $60-15\times3\div20+4$ = $60-2.25+4=61.75$ ✗
  • D (SPQR): $60\div15+3-20\times4$ = $4+3-80=-73$ ✗

Only QRPS gives $20$.

Option B

Question 39 of 80

A tram overtakes 2 persons X and Y walking at an average speed of 3 km/hr and 4 km/hr in the same direction and completely passes them in 8 seconds and 9 seconds respectively. What is the length of the tram?

  1. A15 m
  2. B18 m
  3. C20 m
  4. D24 m

Correct answer Option C

Explanation

Let tram speed be $T$ km/hr and tram length be $L$ m.

For overtaking in the same direction:

  • For X, relative speed is $T-3$.
  • For Y, relative speed is $T-4$.

Since the same tram length is covered, cancel the common conversion factor $5/18$:

  • $8(T-3)=9(T-4)$
  • $8T-24=9T-36$
  • Hence $T=12$ km/hr.

Now use X's case:

  • $L=9\times5/18\times8$
  • $L=20$ m

Option C

Question 40 of 80

If $N^2 = 12345678987654321$, then how many digits does the number N have?

  1. A8
  2. B9
  3. C10
  4. D11

Correct answer Option B

Explanation

The number has the standard repunit-square pattern:

  • $1^2=1$
  • $11^2=121$
  • $111^2=12321$
  • $1111^2=1234321$

Continuing the same pattern, the square of the 9-digit repunit is the given number.

So $N=111111111$, which has 9 digits.

Cross-check: $N^2$ has $17$ digits, so $N$ must have $9$ digits.

Option B

Directions · Questions 41–42Answer the items below based solely on this passage.

Over the next 30 years, many countries are promising to move to net-zero carbon, implying that household emissions will have to be cut to close to nothing. A leading climate scientist reckons that, at best, half the reduction might be achieved through demand-side measures, such as behavioural changes by individuals and households. And even that would require companies and governments to provide more incentives to change through supply-side investments to make low-carbon options cheaper and more widely available.

Question 41 of 80

Comprehension

Which one of the following statements best reflects the central idea conveyed by the passage?

  1. AMoving to net-zero carbon is possible only by the reduction in household emissions.
  2. BLow-carbon behaviour in people can be brought about by incentivising them.
  3. CCheaper goods and services can be made available to people by using low-carbon technologies.
  4. DManufacturing industries that use low-carbon technologies should be provided with subsidies.

Correct answer Option B

Explanation

The passage's central claim: behavioural change is only half of the route to net-zero, and even that half requires incentives (supply-side investments) from companies and governments.

  • Option A ✗ — passage doesn't say household emissions alone are sufficient; it actually says they get at most half.
  • Option B ✓ — directly captures: low-carbon behaviour needs incentivising ("would require companies and governments to provide more incentives to change").
  • Option C ✗ — passage mentions cheaper *low-carbon options*, not generic goods/services.
  • Option D ✗ — subsidies to manufacturers are nowhere mentioned.

Option B

Question 42 of 80

Comprehension

With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:

I. Supply-side investments in companies can result in low-carbon behaviour in people.

II. People are not capable of adapting low-carbon behaviour without the involvement of Government and Companies.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

  1. AI only
  2. BII only
  3. CBoth I and II
  4. DNeither I nor II

Correct answer Option A

Explanation

Assumption I: Supply-side investments in companies can result in low-carbon behaviour in people.

  • The passage says incentives through supply-side investments can make low-carbon options cheaper and more widely available. That can support low-carbon behaviour. Valid.

Assumption II: People are not capable of adapting low-carbon behaviour without Government and Companies.

  • The passage says incentives are required for achieving the demand-side reduction at scale. It does not say people are inherently incapable of low-carbon behaviour without government and company involvement. Invalid.

Thus only I is valid.

Option A

Directions · Questions 43–44Answer the items below based solely on this passage.

In only 50 years, the world's consumption of raw materials has nearly quadrupled, to more than 100 billion tons. Less than 9% of this is reused. Batteries of old vehicles contain materials such as lithium, cobalt, manganese and nickel that are pricey and can be hard to obtain. Supply chains are long and complicated. Buyers' risks are being aggravated by their suppliers' poor environmental and labour standards. Reusing materials makes sense. Once batteries reach the ends of their lives, they should go back to a factory where their ingredients can be recovered and put into new batteries.

Question 43 of 80

Comprehension

Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical, rational and pragmatic message conveyed by the passage?

  1. AGreen economy is not possible without reusing critical minerals.
  2. BEvery sector of economy should adapt the reuse of material resources immediately.
  3. CCircular economy can be beneficial for sustainable growth.
  4. DCircular use of material resources is the only option for some industries for their survival.

Correct answer Option C

Explanation

Passage: "Reusing materials makes sense" + battery recycling example $\Rightarrow$ a circular approach to materials is sensible.

  • Option A ✗ — "not possible without" is too absolute; passage doesn't claim impossibility.
  • Option B ✗ — "every sector ... immediately" overstates; passage discusses one example (batteries), not a universal mandate.
  • Option C ✓ — "can be beneficial for sustainable growth" matches the measured, pragmatic tone ("makes sense").
  • Option D ✗ — passage doesn't make survival of industries hinge on circular use.

Option C

Question 44 of 80

Comprehension

With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:

I. Automobile factories are examples of the circular economy.

II. Economic growth is compatible with circular use of mineral resources.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

  1. AI only
  2. BII only
  3. CBoth I and II
  4. DNeither I nor II

Correct answer Option B

Explanation

Assumption I: Auto factories are examples of circular economy.

  • Passage says batteries *should* go back to a factory — a prescription, not a description of current practice. Auto factories are not held up as existing examples. Invalid.

Assumption II: Growth is compatible with circular mineral use.

  • Passage: consumption has quadrupled (growth) and "reusing materials makes sense" — i.e., growth and circular reuse can co-exist. The whole argument presupposes this compatibility. Valid.

Option B

Question 45 of 80

A set (X) of 20 pipes can fill 70% of a tank in 14 minutes. Another set (Y) of 10 pipes fills $3/8^{th}$ of the tank in 6 minutes. A third set (Z) of 16 pipes can empty half of the tank in 20 minutes. If half of the pipes of set X are closed and only half of the pipes of set Y are open, and all pipes of the set (Z) are open, then how long will it take to fill 50% of the tank?

  1. A8 minutes
  2. B10 minutes
  3. C12 minutes
  4. D16 minutes

Correct answer Option D

Explanation

Compute rates as tank-fraction per minute.

  • Set X: $70\%$ in $14$ min, so set rate $=1/20$. Per pipe $=1/400$.
  • Set Y: $3/8$ in $6$ min, so set rate $=1/16$. Per pipe $=1/160$.
  • Set Z: half in $20$ min, so emptying rate $=1/40$.

Now only 10 pipes of X and 5 pipes of Y are open, and all Z pipes are open:

  • X fills at $10/400=1/40$.
  • Y fills at $5/160=1/32$.
  • Z empties at $1/40$.

X and Z cancel each other. Net filling rate $=1/32$ tank/min.

Time to fill half the tank $=(1/2)/(1/32)=16$ minutes.

Option D

Question 46 of 80

If n is a natural number, then what is the number of distinct remainders of $(1^n + 2^n)$ when divided by 4?

  1. A0
  2. B1
  3. C2
  4. D3

Correct answer Option C

Explanation

Always $1^n=1$.

Now check $2^n$ modulo $4$:

  • For $n=1$, $1^n+2^n=3$, so the remainder is $3$.
  • For $n\ge2$, $2^n\equiv0\pmod4$, so the remainder is $1$.

Thus the possible remainders are $3$ and $1$.

Number of distinct remainders $=2$.

Option C

Question 47 of 80

Let $P = QQQ$ be a 3-digit number. What is the HCF of P and 481?

  1. A1
  2. B13
  3. C37
  4. D481

Correct answer Option C

Explanation

$P=QQQ=111Q$, where $Q$ is one of $1$ to $9$.

Factorize:

  • $111=3\times37$
  • $481=13\times37$

So every valid $P$ has the common factor $37$ with $481$.

There is no extra factor $13$, because $13$ does not divide $3Q$ for any digit $Q$ from $1$ to $9$.

Hence HCF $=37$.

Option C

Question 48 of 80

What is the $489^{th}$ digit in the number $123456789101112\ldots$?

  1. A0
  2. B3
  3. C6
  4. D9

Correct answer Option D

Explanation

Count digits in chunks of equal length:

  • $1$ to $9$: $9$ digits (cumulative $9$).
  • $10$ to $99$: $90 \times 2 = 180$ digits (cumulative $189$).
  • $100$ onwards: each number contributes $3$ digits.

Remaining: $489 - 189 = 300$ digits into the 3-digit block.

$300 / 3 = 100$ — exactly the 100th three-digit number, which is $199$.

The $489$th digit is the last (third) digit of 199, i.e., $9$.

Option D

Question 49 of 80

A mobile phone has been stolen. There are 3 suspects P, Q and R. They were questioned knowing that only one of them is guilty. Their responses are as follows :

P : I did not steal. Q stole it.

Q : R did not steal. I did not steal.

R : I did not steal. I do not know who did it.

Who stole the mobile phone ?

  1. AP
  2. BQ
  3. CR
  4. DCannot be concluded

Correct answer Option D

Explanation

The problem gives no rule about which suspect tells the truth or lies (no "each tells one truth and one lie", no "innocent always tells truth"). Check each case for internal consistency:

  • P is thief: P's two statements are both false ("I didn't steal", "Q stole it"). Q's and R's statements remain true. Consistent ✓
  • Q is thief: P's both statements true. Q lies in "I didn't steal"; says "R didn't steal" (true). Consistent ✓
  • R is thief: P's "Q stole it" is false; Q's "R didn't steal" is false; R lies in both. Consistent ✓

All three scenarios are internally consistent, so the thief cannot be uniquely determined.

Option D

Question 50 of 80

Three teams P, Q, R participated in a tournament in which the teams play with one another exactly once. A win fetches a team 2 points and a draw 1 point. A team gets no point for a loss. Each team scored exactly one goal in the tournament. The team P got 3 points, Q got 2 points and R got 1 point. Which of the following statements is/are correct ?

I. The result of the match between P and Q is a draw with the score $0 - 0$.

II. The number of goals scored by R against Q is 1.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

  1. AI only
  2. BII only
  3. CBoth I and II
  4. DNeither I nor II

Correct answer Option C

Explanation

Points pattern:

  • $P=3$ means one win and one draw.
  • $R=1$ means one draw and one loss.
  • $Q=2$ can be either two draws or one win and one loss.

First test the case where Q has one win and one loss. Then P must beat Q and draw with R, while Q must beat R.

Let P-Q be $p-q$, P-R be $a-a$, and Q-R be $u-v$.

  • P total: $p+a=1$
  • R total: $a+v=1$
  • Q must beat R, so $u>v$

If $a=0$, then $p=1$ and $v=1$, but Q's total allows $u\le1$, so $u>v$ is impossible. If $a=1$, then $p=0$, so P cannot beat Q. Thus this points pattern is impossible.

Therefore Q must have two draws: P-Q is a draw, Q-R is a draw, and P beats R.

Let P-Q be $a-a$, Q-R be $b-b$, and P-R be $p-r$.

  • P total: $a+p=1$
  • Q total: $a+b=1$
  • R total: $b+r=1$
  • P beats R, so $p>r$

The only valid solution is:

  • P-Q: $0-0$
  • P-R: $1-0$
  • Q-R: $1-1$

So Statement I is true and Statement II is also true.

Option C

Directions · Questions 51–52Answer the items below based solely on this passage.

It is hard to predict how changes in the climate and the atmosphere's chemistry will affect the prevalence and virulence of agricultural diseases. But there is a risk that such changes will make some plant infections more common in all climatic zones, perhaps catastrophically so. Part of the problem is that centuries of selective breeding have refined the genomes of most high-value crops. They are spectacular at growing in today's conditions but genetic variations that are not immediately useful to them have been bred out. This is good for yields but bad for coping with changes. A minor disease or even an unknown one could suddenly rampage through a genetically honed crop.

Question 51 of 80

Comprehension

Which one of the following statements best reflects the central idea conveyed by the passage ?

  1. AGlobal climate change adversely affects the productivity of crops.
  2. BOur total dependence on genetically honed crops entails possible food insecurity.
  3. COur food security should not depend on agricultural productivity alone.
  4. DGenetically honed crops should be replaced with their wild varieties in our present cultivation practices.

Correct answer Option B

Explanation

Passage chain: high-value crops have been *genetically honed* $\Rightarrow$ useful variations bred out $\Rightarrow$ "a minor disease or even an unknown one could suddenly rampage through a genetically honed crop" — i.e., dependence on such crops creates risk.

  • Option A ✗ — too generic; the passage's core point is *genetic narrowing*, not just climate impact on productivity.
  • Option B ✓ — directly mirrors the warning: reliance on genetically honed crops $\to$ vulnerability $\to$ possible food insecurity.
  • Option C ✗ — passage isn't about diversifying away from agriculture.
  • Option D ✗ — passage doesn't recommend replacing with wild varieties.

Option B

Question 52 of 80

Comprehension

With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made :

I. Global climate change can result in the migration of several plant diseases to new areas.

II. Scientific understanding of the wild relatives of our present crops would enable us to strengthen food security.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid ?

  1. AI only
  2. BII only
  3. CBoth I and II
  4. DNeither I nor II

Correct answer Option C

Explanation

Assumption I: Global climate change can result in the migration of several plant diseases to new areas.

  • The passage says climate and atmospheric changes may make some plant infections more common in all climatic zones. This supports spread into new areas. Valid.

Assumption II: Scientific understanding of the wild relatives of our present crops would enable us to strengthen food security.

  • The passage says selective breeding has removed genetic variations that are not immediately useful, making crops vulnerable to changes and diseases. Wild relatives are a likely source of such genetic variation; understanding them can help strengthen food security. Valid.

Thus both I and II are valid.

Option C

Directions · Questions 53–54Answer the items below based solely on this passage.

A good statesman, like any other sensible human being, learns more from his opponents than from his fervent supporters. For his supporters will push him to disaster unless his opponents show him where the dangers are. So if he is wise he will often pray to be delivered from his friends, because they will ruin him. But, though it hurts, he ought also to pray never to be left without opponents; for they keep him on the path of reason and good sense. The national unity of free people depends upon a sufficiently even balance of political power to make it impracticable for the administration to be arbitrary and for opposition to be revolutionary and irreconcilable.

Question 53 of 80

Comprehension

Which one of the following statements best reflects the critical message conveyed by the author of the passage ?

  1. AWithout opposition parties, the administration in a democracy gets to become more responsible.
  2. BDemocracy needs to have revolutionaries in opposition to keep the government alert.
  3. CRulers in a democracy need the support of opposition for their political survival.
  4. DIn a democracy, the opposition is indispensable for the balance of political power and good governance.

Correct answer Option D

Explanation

Passage: opponents keep the statesman on "the path of reason and good sense"; national unity rests on "sufficiently even balance of political power".

  • Option A ✗ — exact opposite of the passage's thesis.
  • Option B ✗ — the passage explicitly warns against opposition being "revolutionary and irreconcilable".
  • Option C ✗ — passage is about *good governance*, not the ruler's *political survival*.
  • Option D ✓ — captures both halves: opposition is indispensable, and the balance of political power yields good governance.

Option D

Question 54 of 80

Comprehension

With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made :

I. In a democracy, a strong opposition is required only if the Head of Government is indifferent.

II. The more aggressive the opposition, the better is the governance in a democracy.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid ?

  1. AI only
  2. BII only
  3. CBoth I and II
  4. DNeither I nor II

Correct answer Option D

Explanation

Assumption I: Strong opposition needed only if the Head is indifferent.

  • Passage says opposition is *always* needed — "he ought also to pray never to be left without opponents". No conditional on the Head's attitude. Invalid.

Assumption II: More aggressive opposition $\Rightarrow$ better governance.

  • Passage warns against opposition being "revolutionary and irreconcilable"; it wants *balance*, not aggression. Invalid.

Option D

Question 55 of 80

P is the brother of Q and R. S is R's mother. T is P's father. How many of the following statements are definitely true ?

I. S and T are a couple.

II. Q is T's son.

III. T is Q's father.

IV. S is P's mother.

V. R is T's daughter.

VI. P is S's son.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

  1. AOnly two
  2. BOnly three
  3. COnly four
  4. DOnly five

Correct answer Option C

Explanation

Given: P, Q, R are siblings (P is brother of Q and R). S is R's mother. T is P's father. Hence S and T are parents of all three siblings. P is male (a brother). Q's and R's genders are not fixed (one can be a brother to a sister or to a brother).

Check each:

  • I. S and T are a couple (parents of the same children) ✓
  • II. Q is T's *son* — Q's gender unknown ✗ (could be daughter)
  • III. T is Q's father — T is Q's parent regardless of Q's gender ✓
  • IV. S is P's mother ✓
  • V. R is T's *daughter* — R's gender unknown ✗
  • VI. P is S's son — P is male, S is P's mother ✓

Definitely true: I, III, IV, VI = 4 statements.

Option C

Question 56 of 80

If NO is coded as 210, NOT is coded as 4200 and NOTE is coded as 21000, then how is NOTES coded ?

  1. A399000
  2. B420000
  3. C440000
  4. D630000

Correct answer Option A

Explanation

Use letter positions $A=1, B=2, \ldots, Z=26$.

  • $N=14$, $O=15$, $T=20$, $E=5$, $S=19$.

The code is the product of positions:

  • NO: $14 \times 15 = 210$ ✓
  • NOT: $210 \times 20 = 4200$ ✓
  • NOTE: $4200 \times 5 = 21000$ ✓
  • NOTES: $21000 \times 19 = 399000$

Option A

Question 57 of 80

If FRANCE is coded as 654321 and GERMANY is coded as 9158437, then how is YEMEN coded ?

  1. A54321
  2. B81913
  3. C71913
  4. D71813

Correct answer Option D

Explanation

Build the letter→digit map from the two codings.

FRANCE = 654321
=> F=6, R=5, A=4, N=3, C=2, E=1.

GERMANY = 9158437
=> G=9, E=1, R=5, M=8, A=4, N=3, Y=7.

Both codings agree on shared letters (E=1, R=5, A=4, N=3). Now read YEMEN letter-by-letter:

  • Y=7, E=1, M=8, E=1, N=3
  • YEMEN = 71813

Option D

Question 58 of 80

The 5-digit number PQRST (all distinct digits) is such that $T \neq 0$. P is thrice T. S is greater than Q by 4, while Q is greater than R by 3. How many such 5-digit numbers are possible ?

  1. A3
  2. B4
  3. C5
  4. D6

Correct answer Option B

Explanation

Translate constraints:

  • $T \in \{1, 2, 3\}$ (so $P = 3T$ is a single digit, $\le 9$, and $T \ne 0$).
  • $R \in \{0, 1, 2\}$ (so $S = R + 7 \le 9$).
  • $Q = R + 3$, $S = R + 7$.

Enumerate $(T, P)$ with each $R$:

$T = 1, P = 3$:

  • $R=0$: $Q=3=P$ ✗
  • $R=1$: $R=T$ ✗
  • $R=2$: digits $\{3,5,2,9,1\}$ all distinct ✓

$T = 2, P = 6$:

  • $R=0$: $\{6,3,0,7,2\}$ ✓
  • $R=1$: $\{6,4,1,8,2\}$ ✓
  • $R=2$: $R=T$ ✗

$T = 3, P = 9$:

  • $R=0$: $Q=3=T$ ✗
  • $R=1$: $\{9,4,1,8,3\}$ ✓
  • $R=2$: $S=9=P$ ✗

Valid count: $1 + 2 + 1 = \mathbf{4}$.

Option B

Question 59 of 80

X can complete one-third of a certain work in 6 days, Y can complete one-third of the same work in 8 days and Z can complete three-fourth of the same work in 12 days. All of them work together for n days and then X and Z quit and Y alone finishes the remaining work in $8\frac{2}{3}$ days. What is n equal to ?

  1. A3
  2. B4
  3. C5
  4. D6

Correct answer Option B

Explanation

Compute per-day rates:

  • X: $1/3$ work in $6$ days, so rate $=1/18$.
  • Y: $1/3$ work in $8$ days, so rate $=1/24$.
  • Z: $3/4$ work in $12$ days, so rate $=1/16$.

Combined rate:

  • $1/18=8/144$
  • $1/24=6/144$
  • $1/16=9/144$
  • Sum $=23/144$ per day

In $n$ days, work done $=23n/144$.

Y alone works for $8\frac{2}{3}$ days, i.e. $26/3$ days.

Work by Y then:

  • $(26/3)\times(1/24)=26/72$
  • $26/72=52/144$

Total work is $1$:

  • $23n/144+52/144=1$
  • $23n=92$
  • $n=4$

Option B

Question 60 of 80

What is X in the sequence $1, 3, 6, 11, 18, X, 42$ ?

  1. A26
  2. B27
  3. C29
  4. D30

Correct answer Option C

Explanation

Take successive differences of the sequence:

  • $3 - 1 = 2$
  • $6 - 3 = 3$
  • $11 - 6 = 5$
  • $18 - 11 = 7$
  • $X - 18 = ?$
  • $42 - X = ?$

The differences $2, 3, 5, 7$ are the first four primes, so the next two should be $11$ and $13$:

  • $X = 18 + 11 = 29$
  • Check: $42 - 29 = 13$ ✓ (next prime)

Option C

Directions · Questions 61–62Answer the items below based solely on this passage.

There has been no democracy that has grown economically without corporate capitalism. It helps in modernizing the economy and enabling the transition from rural to urban, and agriculture to industry and services, which are inevitable with growth. It generates jobs — and there is no other way to fix a country's unemployment challenge without a further impetus to private business. Big companies can operate on a large scale and become competitive both domestically and externally. A vibrant corporate capitalist base also leads to additional revenues for the State — which in turn, can be used for greater welfare for the marginalized and creating a more level playing field in terms of opportunities.

Question 61 of 80

Comprehension

Which one of the following statements best reflects the critical message conveyed by the author of the passage ?

  1. ACorporate capitalism is important for economic growth of a State and also for democracy.
  2. BCorporate capitalism is imperative for a modern State to achieve its political objectives.
  3. CNo State can ensure its economic survival for long without the role of corporate capitalism.
  4. DCorporate capitalism and democracy have mutual dependence for their continued existence.

Correct answer Option A

Explanation

Passage opens: "no democracy that has grown economically without corporate capitalism" — pairing economic growth with democracy. Then it lists benefits: modernization, jobs, competitiveness, welfare for the marginalized.

  • Option A ✓ — captures both anchors of the passage: economic growth and democracy.
  • Option B ✗ — passage doesn't speak of "political objectives" of a modern state.
  • Option C ✗ — passage talks about democracies growing, not about state survival generally.
  • Option D ✗ — passage says democracy needs corporate capitalism, not the other way around — no *mutual* dependence is asserted.

Option A

Question 62 of 80

Comprehension

With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made :

I. Corporate capitalism promotes the growth of labour force and provides more employment opportunities.

II. Poor and marginalized sections of population are benefited by corporate capitalism due to trickle-down effect.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid ?

  1. AI only
  2. BII only
  3. CBoth I and II
  4. DNeither I nor II

Correct answer Option C

Explanation

Assumption I: Corporate capitalism promotes the growth of labour force and provides more employment opportunities.

  • The passage says corporate capitalism "generates jobs" and that unemployment cannot be fixed without further impetus to private business. This supports more employment opportunities and a larger engaged labour force. Valid.

Assumption II: Poor and marginalized sections benefit due to trickle-down effect.

  • The passage says a vibrant corporate capitalist base leads to additional State revenues, which can be used for welfare of the marginalized and for a more level playing field. This supports the assumed benefit reaching the poor and marginalized. Valid.

Thus both I and II are valid.

Option C

Directions · Question 63Answer the items below based solely on this passage.

"A network of voluntary associations stands as a 'buffer' between the relatively powerless individual and the potentially powerful State."

Question 63 of 80

Comprehension

Which one of the following statements reflects the best explanation of the above passage ?

  1. AIt emphasizes the inability of the State to enforce its will in practice against the opposition of certain groups within it.
  2. BIt is a cooperative organization for the promotion of the well-being and development of the personality of its members.
  3. CIt takes individuals out of a state of isolation and gives them a chance to participate in the common endeavour.
  4. DIt permits citizens to have a variety of loyalties and allegiance.

Correct answer Option C

Explanation

The passage says voluntary associations stand between the relatively powerless individual and the potentially powerful State as a buffer.

  • Option A ✗ — the passage does not mainly say that the State is unable to enforce its will against groups.
  • Option B ✗ — this describes welfare and personality development inside an association, not the buffer role.
  • Option C ✓ — associations reduce the isolation of individuals and let them participate in a common endeavour; that is how they become a buffer between the individual and the State.
  • Option D ✗ — the passage is not about multiple loyalties or allegiances.

Option C

Question 64 of 80

Consider the following statements :

I. There exists a natural number which when increased by 50% can have its number of factors unchanged.

II. There exists a natural number which when increased by 150% can have its number of factors unchanged.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

  1. AI only
  2. BII only
  3. CBoth I and II
  4. DNeither I nor II

Correct answer Option C

Explanation

Statement I: Take $N = 2$. Increase by 50%: $2 \times 1.5 = 3$.

  • $d(2) = 2$ (factors 1, 2)
  • $d(3) = 2$ (factors 1, 3)

Factor count unchanged. ✓

Statement II: Take $N = 2$. Increase by 150%: $2 \times 2.5 = 5$.

  • $d(2) = 2$
  • $d(5) = 2$ (factors 1, 5)

Factor count unchanged. ✓

Both statements have explicit witnesses. — Option C

Question 65 of 80

There are 7 places A, B, C, D, E, F and G in a city connected by various roads AB, AC, CD, DE, BF, EG and FG. A is 6 km south of B. A is 10 km west of C. D is 5 km east of E. C is 6 km north of D. F is 9 km west of B. F is 12 km north of G. A person travels from D to F through these roads. What is the distance covered by the person ?

  1. A20 km
  2. B25 km
  3. C31 km
  4. D37 km

Correct answer Option C

Explanation

Place coordinates: $A=(0,0)$, $B=(0,6)$, $C=(10,0)$, $D=(10,-6)$, $E=(5,-6)$, $F=(-9,6)$, $G=(-9,-6)$.

Allowed roads: AB, AC, CD, DE, BF, EG, FG.

Route 1: D → C → A → B → F

  • $CD=6$, $AC=10$, $AB=6$, $BF=9$
  • Total $=6+10+6+9=31$ km

Route 2: D → E → G → F

  • $DE=5$
  • $EG=\sqrt{14^2+0}=14$ km
  • $FG=12$
  • Total $=5+14+12=31$ km

Both available routes give 31 km. — Option C

Question 66 of 80

In a certain code if 64 is written as 343 and 216 is written as 729, then how is 512 written in that code ?

  1. A1000
  2. B1331
  3. C1728
  4. D2197

Correct answer Option B

Explanation

Recognize the cubes:

  • $64=4^3 \to 343=7^3$, so base $4 \to 7$
  • $216=6^3 \to 729=9^3$, so base $6 \to 9$

Pattern: cube of $n$ maps to cube of $n+3$.

For $512=8^3$: code $=(8+3)^3=11^3=1331$.

Option B

Question 67 of 80

What is the remainder when $9^3 + 9^4 + 9^5 + 9^6 + \ldots + 9^{100}$ is divided by 6 ?

  1. A0
  2. B1
  3. C2
  4. D3

Correct answer Option A

Explanation

Modulo 6, $9 \equiv 3$.

For every $n \ge 1$:

  • $9^n \equiv 3$

Terms from $9^3$ to $9^{100}$:

  • Count $=98$
  • Sum mod 6 $=98 \times 3$
  • $98 \times 3=294$
  • $294$ is divisible by $6$

Remainder $=0$. — Option A

Question 68 of 80

A question is given followed by two Statements I and II. Consider the Question and the Statements and mark the correct option.

Question :

What is the smallest 1-digit number having exactly 4 distinct factors ?

Statement I : 2 is one of the factors.

Statement II : 3 is one of the factors.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements ?

  1. AThe Question can be answered by using one of the Statements alone, but cannot be answered using the other statement alone.
  2. BThe Question can be answered by using either Statement alone.
  3. CThe Question can be answered by using both the Statements together, but cannot be answered using either Statement alone.
  4. DThe Question can be answered even without using any of the Statements.

Correct answer Option D

Explanation

List 1-digit numbers with exactly 4 distinct factors:

  • $6$: factors $\{1,2,3,6\}$ → 4 ✓
  • $8$: factors $\{1,2,4,8\}$ → 4 ✓

All others (1,2,3,4,5,7,9) have 1, 2, or 3 factors. The smallest is $6$.

The question already uniquely fixes the answer as 6 — no statement is required.

Statement I: Both 6 and 8 contain 2, doesn't add info that's needed.

Statement II: Confirms 6, but smallest was already 6 anyway.

The answer is reachable without either statement. — Option D

Question 69 of 80

A question is given followed by two Statements I and II. Consider the Question and the Statements and mark the correct option.

Question :

Let P, Q, R, S be distinct non-zero digits. If $PP \times PQ = RRSS$, where $P \leq 3$ and $Q \leq 4$, then what is Q equal to ?

Statement I : $R = 1$.

Statement II : $S = 2$.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements ?

  1. AThe Question can be answered by using one of the Statements alone, but cannot be answered using the other statement alone.
  2. BThe Question can be answered by using either Statement alone.
  3. CThe Question can be answered by using both the Statements together, but cannot be answered using either Statement alone.
  4. DThe Question can be answered even without using any of the Statements.

Correct answer Option D

Explanation

$PP=11P$, $PQ=10P+Q$, and $RRSS=11(100R+S)$.

Dividing by 11 gives:

  • $P(10P+Q)=100R+S$

Check $P \in \{1,2,3\}$:

  • $P=1$: left side $\le 14$, impossible
  • $P=2$: left side $\le 48$, impossible
  • $P=3$: check $Q=1,2,4$

For $P=3$:

  • $Q=1$: value $93$, impossible
  • $Q=2$: value $96$, impossible
  • $Q=4$: value $102$, so $R=1,S=2$ ✓

Unique solution: $33 \times 34=1122$. Hence $Q=4$ from the question alone. No statement is required. — Option D

Question 70 of 80

A question is given followed by two Statements I and II. Consider the Question and the Statements and mark the correct option.

Question :

How is Q related to P ?

Statement I : P has two sisters, R and S.

Statement II : R's father is the brother of Q.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements ?

  1. AThe Question can be answered by using one of the Statements alone, but cannot be answered using the other statement alone.
  2. BThe Question can be answered by using either Statement alone.
  3. CThe Question can be answered by using both the Statements together, but cannot be answered using either Statement alone.
  4. DThe Question cannot be answered even using any of the Statements.

Correct answer Option D

Explanation

Statement I: P has sisters R, S — no mention of Q. Insufficient.

Statement II: R's father is brother of Q — but R's link to P is unknown. Insufficient.

Both together: R is P's sister, so R's father = P's father. Then Q is the sibling of P's father.

But the gender of Q is not given. 'Brother of Q' tells us R's father is male and a sibling of Q; Q itself can be male or female.

  • Q male $\Rightarrow$ paternal uncle of P
  • Q female $\Rightarrow$ paternal aunt of P

The exact relation cannot be pinned down even with both. — Option D

Directions · Question 71Answer the items below based solely on this passage.

A single number for inflation is an aggregate across different commodities and services — the price rise differs for different items of consumption. So, the single number is arrived at by assigning weights to different commodities and services. For WPI, the weights in production are used; for CPI, the consumption basket is used. But people are not homogeneous. The consumption basket is vastly different for the poor, the middle classes, and the rich. Hence, the CPI is different for each of these classes and a composite index requires averaging the baskets.

Question 71 of 80

Comprehension

Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical, rational and crucial message conveyed by the passage ?

  1. AWe must use WPI exclusively in measuring price rise and CPI should be done away with.
  2. BThe present calculation of inflation rate does not correctly measure price rise of individual item/commodity.
  3. CInflation data under-presents services in the consumption basket.
  4. DKnowledge of inflation rate is not really of any use to anybody in the country.

Correct answer Option B

Explanation

Passage explicitly says: 'price rise differs for different items of consumption' and the single number is just a weighted aggregate; further, 'CPI is different for each of these classes'. The logical takeaway is that the headline single number cannot correctly capture the actual price rise of individual items/commodities.

  • (a) Passage discusses WPI and CPI neutrally; never recommends scrapping CPI. ✗
  • (b) Matches the line about price rise differing across items and the aggregate hiding it. ✓
  • (c) Passage never compares goods vs services representation. ✗
  • (d) Passage doesn't claim the inflation number is useless. ✗

Option B

Directions · Question 72Answer the items below based solely on this passage.

Trust stands commonly defined as being vulnerable to others. Entrepreneurship implies trust in others and willingness to expose oneself to betrayal. Trust in expert systems is the essence of globalizing behaviour; trust itself emerges as a super-commodity in the social market and defines the characteristics of goods and services in a global market. Trusting conduct also means holding others in good esteem, and an optimism that they are, or will be, competent in certain respects.

Question 72 of 80

Comprehension

Which one of the following statements best reflects the crux of the passage ?

  1. ATrustworthiness cannot be expected in entrepreneurship.
  2. BTrustworthy people are the most vulnerable people.
  3. CNo economic activity is possible without being exposed to betrayal.
  4. DTrust is important though it entails risk.

Correct answer Option D

Explanation

Passage stresses two parallel ideas: trust is essential — 'essence of globalizing behaviour', 'super-commodity in the social market' — and it inherently involves risk — 'being vulnerable to others', 'willingness to expose oneself to betrayal'.

  • (a) Passage says entrepreneurship implies trust in others, not absence of trust. ✗
  • (b) Passage defines trust as vulnerability of the truster; never claims trustworthy people are the most vulnerable. ✗
  • (c) Too absolute; passage doesn't say every economic activity requires exposure to betrayal. ✗
  • (d) Captures importance plus risk — the two strands of the passage. ✓

Option D

Question 73 of 80

A question is given followed by two Statements I and II. Consider the Question and the Statements and mark the correct option.

Question :

In a football match, team P playing against Q was behind by 3 goals with 10 minutes remaining. Does team P win the match ?

Statement I : Team P scored 4 goals in the last 10 minutes.

Statement II : Team Q scored a total of 4 goals in the match.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements ?

  1. AThe Question can be answered by using one of the Statements alone, but cannot be answered using the other statement alone.
  2. BThe Question can be answered by using either Statement alone.
  3. CThe Question can be answered by using both the Statements together, but cannot be answered using either Statement alone.
  4. DThe Question cannot be answered even using any of the Statements.

Correct answer Option D

Explanation

Let P's score at the 10-min-left mark be $x$, so Q's score then $= x+3$.

Statement I: P adds 4 goals, so $P_{\text{final}}=x+4$. Q's last-10-min goals unknown $\Rightarrow$ $Q_{\text{final}}$ unknown. Insufficient.

Statement II: $Q_{\text{final}}=4$ but $P_{\text{final}}$ unknown. Insufficient.

Both together: $P_{\text{final}}=x+4$, $Q_{\text{final}}=4$. Also Q at 10-min mark $=x+3 \le 4$, so $x \le 1$.

  • $x=0$: $P=4$, $Q=4$ $\Rightarrow$ draw, not win
  • $x=1$: $P=5$, $Q=4$ $\Rightarrow$ P wins

Two different outcomes remain possible. Insufficient even combined.Option D

Question 74 of 80

A question is given followed by two Statements I and II. Consider the Question and the Statements and mark the correct option.

Question :

Is $(p + q)^2 - 4pq$, where p, q are natural numbers, positive ?

Statement I : $p < q$.

Statement II : $p > q$.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements ?

  1. AThe Question can be answered by using one of the Statements alone, but cannot be answered using the other statement alone.
  2. BThe Question can be answered by using either Statement alone.
  3. CThe Question can be answered by using both the Statements together, but cannot be answered using either Statement alone.
  4. DThe Question can be answered even without using any of the Statements.

Correct answer Option B

Explanation

Expand the expression:

  • $(p+q)^2=p^2+2pq+q^2$
  • Subtracting $4pq$ gives $(p-q)^2$

So the expression is positive exactly when $p \ne q$.

Without any statement, $p=q=2$ gives $0$, so the question cannot be answered.

Statement I: $pSufficient.

Statement II: $p>q$, so $p \ne q$ and the value is positive. Sufficient.

Either one alone settles the question. — Option B

Question 75 of 80

In a T20 cricket match, three players X, Y and Z scored a total of 37 runs. The ratio of number of runs scored by X to the number of runs scored by Y is equal to ratio of number of runs scored by Y to number of runs scored by Z.

Value-I = Runs scored by X

Value-II = Runs scored by Y

Value-III = Runs scored by Z

Which one of the following is correct ?

  1. AValue-I $<$ Value-II $<$ Value-III
  2. BValue-III $<$ Value-II $<$ Value-I
  3. CValue-I $<$ Value-III $<$ Value-II
  4. DCannot be determined due to insufficient data

Correct answer Option D

Explanation

The ratio condition gives:

  • $X/Y=Y/Z$
  • so $Y^2=XZ$

With total runs $37$, two valid triples are enough to test determinacy.

  • $(X,Y,Z)=(9,12,16)$: sum $=37$ and $12^2=9 \times 16$ ✓. Here $I
  • $(X,Y,Z)=(16,12,9)$: sum $=37$ and $12^2=16 \times 9$ ✓. Here $III

Both satisfy every condition but give different orderings. The ordering is not determined. — Option D

Question 76 of 80

Let $p + q = 10$, where p, q are integers.

Value-I = Maximum value of $p \times q$ when p, q are positive integers.

Value-II = Maximum value of $p \times q$ when $p \geq -6, q \geq -4$.

Which one of the following is correct ?

  1. AValue-I $<$ Value-II
  2. BValue-II $<$ Value-I
  3. CValue-I $=$ Value-II
  4. DCannot be determined due to insufficient data

Correct answer Option C

Explanation

$p+q=10$, so $pq=q(10-q)=10q-q^2$, a downward parabola maximized at $q=5$, giving $pq=25$.

Quantity I: $p, q$ positive integers. $q=5$ is allowed, $p=5$. So $I=25$.

Quantity II: $p \ge -6, q \ge -4$, so $-4 \le q \le 16$. The unconstrained max $q=5$ lies inside this range, so again $pq=25$. So $II=25$.

Thus $I=II=25$. — Option C

Question 77 of 80

Consider a set of 11 numbers :

Value-I = Minimum value of the average of the numbers of the set when they are consecutive integers $\geq -5$.

Value-II = Minimum value of the product of the numbers of the set when they are consecutive non-negative integers.

Which one of the following is correct ?

  1. AValue-I $<$ Value-II
  2. BValue-II $<$ Value-I
  3. CValue-I $=$ Value-II
  4. DCannot be determined due to insufficient data

Correct answer Option C

Explanation

Quantity I: 11 consecutive integers, each $\ge -5$. To minimize the average, start as low as possible: $\{-5,-4,\ldots,5\}$.

  • Sum $=0$, average $=0/11=0$. So $I=0$.

Quantity II: 11 consecutive non-negative integers. Smallest start $=0$, giving $\{0,1,\ldots,10\}$.

  • Any consecutive run of 11 non-negative integers starting at 0 contains 0, so product $=0$. (Starting from 1 onwards the product is positive and larger.) So $II=0$.

Thus $I=II=0$. — Option C

Question 78 of 80

The average of three numbers p, q and r is k. p is as much more than the average as q is less than the average. What is the value of r ?

  1. A$k$
  2. B$k - 1$
  3. C$k + 1$
  4. D$k/2$

Correct answer Option A

Explanation

Average condition: $p+q+r = 3k$.

Given: $p-k = k-q \Rightarrow p+q = 2k$.

Substitute: $2k + r = 3k \Rightarrow r = k$.

Quick check: $p=k+d$, $q=k-d$, then $r=k$, average $=\frac{(k+d)+(k-d)+k}{3}=k$ ✓.

Option A

Question 79 of 80

Let x be a real number between 0 and 1. Which of the following statements is/are correct ?

I. $x^2 > x^3$.

II. $x > \sqrt{x}$.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

  1. AI only
  2. BII only
  3. CBoth I and II
  4. DNeither I nor II

Correct answer Option A

Explanation

$0

Statement I: $x^2>x^3$?

  • $x^2-x^3=x^2(1-x)$
  • Here $x^2>0$ and $1-x>0$
  • Therefore $x^2>x^3$ ✓

Statement II: $x>\sqrt{x}$?

For $0

  • $x^2
  • hence $x<\sqrt{x}$

So Statement II is false. ✗

Only I is correct. — Option A

Question 80 of 80

The difference between any two natural numbers is 10. What can be said about the natural numbers which are divisible by 5 and lie between these two numbers ?

  1. AThere is only one such number.
  2. BThere are only two such numbers.
  3. CThere can be more than one such number.
  4. DNo such number exists.

Correct answer Option C

Explanation

Let the two numbers be $n$ and $n+10$. Count multiples of 5 strictly between them:

  • $n=5$ (multiple of 5): between 5 and 15 only $\{10\}$ → 1 number
  • $n=1$: between 1 and 11 are $\{5,10\}$ → 2 numbers
  • $n=3$: between 3 and 13 are $\{5,10\}$ → 2 numbers

The count is either 1 or 2 depending on whether the endpoints are multiples of 5.

  • (a) 'Only one' fails for $n=1$ (gives 2). ✗
  • (b) 'Only two' fails for $n=5$ (gives 1). ✗
  • (d) At least one always exists. ✗
  • (c) 'Can be more than one' — true ($n=1$ gives 2). ✓

Option C

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